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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for REVISION 2
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1. WXR display is on
The co-pilots CRT only
The captains CRT only
On both the captains and co-pilots CRTs
A special screen
2. Which of the following will effect a direct reading compass? ferrous metals, non-ferrous metals, electrical equipment
1 & 2
1 & 3
all 3
1 only
3. A stall warning system fitted to a large aircraft will always include
Stick shakers and/or stick push
Various inputs including speed brake position, a warning module and a visual or aural warning
Various inputs including landing gear micro switch, a warning module and an aural warning
Various inputs including EGT, a warning module and an aural warning
4. If the rpm of the rotor in a turn and slip indicator is higher than normal, the turn indicator wil
Underread the correct rate of turn
Overread the correct rate of turn
Not indicate due to the increased rigidity
Indicate correctly
5. Select the correct statement
TAS = EAS corrected for compressibility error
EAS = IAS corrected for position error
CAS = TAS corrected for density error
EAS = CAS corrected for compressibility error
6. When an intruder aircraft has no Altitude Reporting facility, i.e. Mode equipped with ‘A’ transponder only, TCAS can only give
TA followed by a Preventative RA
Corrective RA only
Preventative RA only
TA only
7. What corrective action is given by TCAS?
Contact ATC
Turn then climb or descend.
Turn left or right
Climb or descend
8. The principle of the fuel-monitoring device giving an indication of the total fuel burnt is
multiplying flight time by fuel consumption
difference of indication according to departure value
capacitance variation of a capacitor
integration of instantaneous flow
9. Which of the following is the FMS normal operating condition in the cruise?
V NAV only
L NAV and V NAV
L NAV or V NAV
L NAV only
10. VLO is defined as
the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extended
the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted or extended
the minimum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extended
the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear retracted
11. An autopilot delivers roll commands to the ailerons to achieve a bank angle
set bank of 30 degrees
proportional to the deviation from the desired heading, but not exceeding a specified maximum
proportional to TAS, but below a specified maximum
set bank of 25 degrees
12. With reference to the flux valve of a remote indicating compass
The flux valve is pendulously mounted and is free to turn to remain aligned with the earth magnetic field
The flux valve is fixed to the aircraft and so turns with the aircraft to measure the angle between the aircraft and the earth’s magnetic field
The flux valve is pendulously mounted and so it is not subject to or affected by the earth’s magnetic field
The flux valve is not subject to acceleration errors
13. During a CAT 1 ILS approach, height is indicated by
Marker
Barometric
GPS
Radio Altimeter
14. “LOC ARMED” lights up on the FMA part of the PFD, this means
localiser beam captured
a/c is on localiser centerline
localiser alarm is on
localiser beam armed and awaiting capture
15. Which of the following types of pressure gauge would be best suited to a high pressure input?
dynamic probe
bourdon tube
bellows
aneroid capsule
16. Altitude select and altitude hold are examples of
Manometric functions from the ADC
Inner loop functions in pitch
Outer loop functions in roll
Interlocking functions
17. In an inertial-lead VSI the source of the most pronounced error is
Position
Missed approach manoeuver
Steep turn
Instrument
18. An aircraft has a compensated capacitance fuel contents gauging system and is refuelled so that the total fuel contents are 76000kg at a temperature of 18°C and an S.G. of 0.81. Whilst the aircraft is parked the temperature increases to 26°C and the S.G. becomes 0.80. The indicated fuel contents have
increased by 10%
remained the same
increased by 5%
decreased by 5%
19. What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height?
Land 2 system
Fail operation or fail active
Fail passive
Fail soft
20. Weather Radar returns can be displayed in which of the following EFIS Modes
Map Exp ILS Exp VOR
Plan Exp ILS Exp VOR
Map ILS VOR
Plan Exp ILS Map
21. The GPWS uses inputs from
The radio altimeter, ILS receiver, static pressure monitor, and the landing gear position monitor only
The radio altimeter and the ILS receiver only
The radio altimeter, static pressure monitor, landing gear position monitor, and the flap position monitor only
The radio altimeter, static pressure monitor, ILS receiver and the landing gear and flap position monitors
22. An aircraft equipped with digital avionics includes an ECAM system. This centralised system, if a failure in one of the monitored systems is displayed, the crew must
cancel the warning
apply the immediate actions as directed by the checklist on the left of the two screens
analyse initially the failure and only respond to a level 1 warning
reset the warning display after noting the failure on the left screen
23. A warning message on the EICAS system screen would be
displayed in amber, normally on the upper screen with aural warnings .
displayed in red, normally on the upper screen , and requiring immediate corrective action
displayed in amber, normally on the upper screen, indented one space to the right
displayed in amber on the lower screen with associated caution lights and aural tones
24. To improve the horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended from a point
On the centre line of the magnet
Varying with magnetic latitude
Above the centre of gravity
Below the centre of gravity
25. The Altitude Alert system alerts the pilot
At decision height
When reference altitude equals the selected altitude
When deviating from the selected altitude
At the selected altitude
26. An aircraft is descending at a constant mach number. If the aircraft is descending through an inversion layer, the CAS will
Remain constant
Decrease then decrease more slowly
Decrease
Increase
27. What is the purpose of the auto-synchronisation system in an A/P: 1. Prevents snatching on disengagement 2. Prevents snatching on engagement 3. Cross feeds rudder and aileron inputs for co-ordination 4. May not allow the A/P to engage if unserviceable 5. Displays the control positions 6. Removes standing demands from the autopilot system prior to the CMD button being selected
1,3&5
1,4&6
2,4&6
2,3&5
28. If one probe of a multi-sensor EGT system became disconnected, the reading would
Decrease by between 20°C to 30°C
Fall to zero
Be largely unaffected
Increase by between 20°C to 30°C
29. If only a single A/P is used to climb, cruise and approach; following a failure
it is fail operational and will not disconnect
it is fail safe and will disconnect
it is fail passive with redundancy
it is fail soft and will not disconnect
30. Which of the following apply to the a Yaw damper : 1. May aid the pilot in the event of asymmetric thrust after engine failure 2. Applies measured amounts of aileron to counter dutch roll 3. Increases lateral stability to stop dutch roll 4. Is required at high altitude 5. Can automatically help in turn co-ordination 6. May deflect the rudder to counteract the natural oscillating frequency of the aircraft.
1, 4 & 6
2, 3 & 4
1, 4 & 5
2, 3 & 6
31. If an aircraft, fitted with a DRMC, takes off on a westerly heading, in the northern hemisphere, the DRMC will indicate
no turn
a turn to the north
oscillates about west
a turn to south
32. What are the advantages of an IRS compared to an INS?
Reduce spin-up time and a dither motor to prevent “lock-out”.
Reduce spin-up time and accuracy not adversely affect by “g”
Insensitively to “g” and reduced wander of the gyroscope.
Increase accuracy and a dither motor to prevent “lock-out”.
33. TCAS 2 when fitted with mode C transponder may give
TA and RA in horizontal plane.
TA and RA in vertical plane.
TA only
TA and RA in vertical plane.
34. Which of the following are modes of the GPWS? 1. Excessive sink rate. 2. Altitude loss after T/O or go-around. 3. Excessive Glideslope deviation. 4. High climb rate. 5. Flaps in incorrect position. 6. High altitude descent. 7. Stall.
All 7
1, 3, 5 & 7
1, 2 & 3
1, 2, 3, & 5
35. What are the components of a CVR 1 Microphone 2 Crash/Fire resistant construction 3 Independent battery 4 A Flight data recorder
1, 2 & 4
1, 2, 3 & 4
1 & 2
1 & 4
36. You are flying at a constant FL 290 and constant mach number. The total temperature increases by 5°. The CAS will
will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA.
decrease by 10 kts
remain approximately constant
increase by 10 kts
37. During an approach to autoland at 1500feet
Provided both localiser and glideslope signals are valid LAND 3 will
Localiser is controlling the roll channel, stabiliser is trimmed nose up and roll out is armed
Localiser is controlling the roll channel, off line channels are automatically engaged and flare mode is armed
Off line channels are manually engaged, flare mode is armed
38. The rigidity (gyroscopic interia. of a gyroscope may be increased by
Decreasing the speed of rotation and increasing the speed of the rotor.
Increasing the speed of rotation and increasing the mass of the rotor
Increasing the speed of rotation and decreasing the mass of the rotor
Increasing the number of gimbals and decreasing the number of planes of rotation
39. What are the colours used on an EFIS display to show a tuned navigation aid and an airport?
white & magenta
white & yellow
green & cyan
green & white
40. The combined Machmeter/ASI is subject to the following errors
Those of the Machmeter only
Instrument, pressure and temperature only
Instrument and compressibility only
Position, density, instrument, compressibility, manoeuvre induced
41. The gravity erecting device on a vertical gyro is used on which instrument
turn indicator
directional gyro unit
artificial horizon
gyromagnetic device
42. In a Schuler tuned INS, the largest unbounded errors are
Due to real wander of the platform gyroscopes
Created at the first stage of integration
Due to acceleration errors
Track errors due to initial misalignment
43. During an autoland the caption LAND 2 is illuminated. The system is
Fail passive
Requiring a crew input
Fail active or fail operational
Approaching decision height
44. What errors can the Air Data Computer correct for? 1. instrument error & ram rise 2. compressibility & density error 3. lag & density error 4. position & temperature error 5. temperature & instrument error 6. manoeuvre error & ram rise 7. manoeuvre & position errors
1 & 6
3 & 5
3 & 7
2 & 4
45. The red arc in the middle of the green band of a piston engine RPM indicator signifies
RPM that must never be exceeded in the cruise
Minimum RPM
RPM at which a greater level of vibration is encountered
Maximum RPM
46. To obtain heading information from a Gyro Stabilised platform, the gyros should have
2 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis
1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis
1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis
2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis
47. An aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and altitude is flying from a cold airmass into warmer air. The effect of the change of temperature on the speed will be
CAS will increase
TAS will increase
CAS will increase
EAS will decrease
48. At 200ft on an auto-land
The LOC mode is engaged in the roll channel and the G/S mode is engaged in pitch
The LOC mode is engaged in the roll channel and the FLARE mode is engaged in the pitch channel
The ROLL OUT mode is engaged in the Roll channel and the G/S mode is engaged in pitch.
The auto-throttle is maintaining the speed and the pitch channel is maintaining the height.
49. An aircraft taking off from an airfield with QNH set in the altimeter has both static vents blocked by ice. As the aircraft climbs away the altimeter will
Read the height of the aircraft above the airfield
Show only a very small increase in height
Read the airfield elevation
Indicate the aircraft height amsl
50. EPR is the ratio of
The compressor outlet pressure to the compressor inlet pressure
Jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure on a turbo-prop engine only
Jet pipe pressure to the compressor outlet pressure on a gas turbine engine
Jet pipe pressure to the compressor inlet pressure on a gas turbine engine
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