Vayudoot Aviation

1.
What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?

FL50

FL60

FL100

FL80

2.
A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to

runway surface

200 feet above the inner marker

200 feet above the runway threshold

50 feet above ILS reference point

3.
In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to fix an aircraft's position?

When declaring an emergency on any frequency

When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz

When contacting ATC to join controlled airapace from the open FIR

On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary

4.
What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes?

1000

4096

3600

760

5.
In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?

EHF

SHF

VHF

UHF

6.
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is approximately

204 NM

163 NM

245 NM

183 NM

7.
ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the published protection range should be accurate to within a maximum error of

+/-2.5°

+/-10°

+/-5°

+/-2°

8.
In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation is provided by

Inertial Reference SystemsNavigation radiosTrue airspeed and drift inputs

Flight Management ComputerAircraft Mapping RadarNavigation radios

Navigation radiosFlight Management ComputerInertial Reference Systems

Inertial Reference SystemsAircraft Mapping RadarNavigation radios

9.
In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?

EHF

UHF

VHF

SHF

10.
At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?

20200 km

36000 km

19500 km

10900 km

11.
In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the

number of pulses per second

the number of cycles per second

ratio of pulse period to pulse width

delay after which the process re-starts

12.
In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to

7000

7500

7700

7600

13.
An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because

DME transmits twin pulses

DME uses the UHF band

the pulse recurrence rates are varied

they are not on the receiver frequency

14.
Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is:(pps = pulses per second)

375 pps

308 pps

782 pps

405 pps

15.
Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?

WGS 84

ED 87

EUREF 92

ED 50

16.
Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to

transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range

detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large

obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam

detect the larger water droplets

17.
The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined by the (i)........ , the maximum unambiguous range by the (ii).........

(i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency

(i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency

(i) pulse length (ii) length of the timebase

(i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output

18.
Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?

300 - 3000 kHz

255 - 455 kHz

200 - 2000 kHz

200 - 1750 kHz

19.
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Selective Availability' (SA) gives the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by

using a less accurate atomic clock in a satellite for signal processing

shutting off selected satellites

dithering the satellite clock

offsetting satellite atomic clocks by a predetermined constant amount

20.
In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air Data input?

Doppler drift

True airspeed

Inertial Navigation System (INS) position

VOR/DME radial/distance

21.
What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on board an aircraft?

Multiplex

Sequential

Multichannel

Any hand held type

22.
Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?

At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m from touchdown

At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m along the extended centreline

At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown on the centreline

On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the extended centreline

23.
The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organised in such a way that the pilot can

only read the database

insert navigation data between two updates

read and write at any time in database

can modify the database every 28 days

24.
A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to

signal controlled search

standby mode

search mode

memory mode

25.
The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies

962 to 1213 MHz

329 to 335 MHz

108 to 118 MHz

962 to 1213 kHz.

26.
Given:Magnetic heading 280°VOR radial 090°What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a ""TO"" indication?

280°

270°

090°

100°

27.
The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S, contains

two modes, each 1024 codes

four modes, each 4096 codes

four modes, each 1024 codes

two modes, each of 4096 codes

28.
Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)?

The average position calculated from data provided by both systems increases overall accuracy

The activation of 'Selective Availability' can be recognised by the INS

The only advantage of coupling both systems is double redundancy

The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS

29.
An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is

NDB: beacon positionVOR: beacon position

NDB: beacon positionVOR: aircraft position

NDB: aircraft positionVOR: aircraft position

NDB: aircraft positionVOR: beacon position

30.
The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies: Transmitter Receiver

1030 MHz 1090 MHz

1090 MHz 1090 MHz

1090 MHz 1030 MHz

1030 MHz 1030 MHz

31.
An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately

100 FT/MIN

150 FT/MIN

50 FT/MIN

250 FT/MIN

32.
The basic elements of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the

control, space and user segments

antenna, the receiver and the central control unit (CDU)

atomic clock, power supply and transponder

main control station, the monitoring station and the ground antennas

33.
In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?

When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit

When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM

When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it

When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more

34.
In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?

UHF

VHF

SHF

EHF

35.
An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of

142 NM

130 NM

123 NM

135 NM

36.
For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds

100

80

200

60

37.
A DME is located at MSL.An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately

11 NM

7 NM

8 NM

6 NM

38.
The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates

an emergency

transponder malfunction

unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight

radio communication failure

39.
GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?

L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)

L2-for communications purpose

L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)

L1-precise (P)

40.
The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System

corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turns

represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it co-incides with the desired track, wind influence is compensated for

indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown

indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection

41.
An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?

284° with the TO flag showing

104° with the TO flag showing

104° with the FROM flag showing

284° with the FROM flag showing

42.
In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?

PRN describes the continuous electro-magnetical background noise that exists in space

PRN occurs in the receiver. It is caused by the signal from one satellite being received from different directions (multipath effect)

PRN is the atmospheric jamming that affects the signals transmitted by the satellites

PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites and the measurement of the time taken by the signal to reach the receiver

43.
In order to obtain an ADF bearing the

mode selector should be switched to 'loop'

BFO switch must be selected to 'ON'

signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials

sense aerial must be tuned separately

44.
In the event of the use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system ?

It has no influence because, by selecting of the most suitable signals, the computing process in the receiver is quicker

It degrades accuracy by reducing the number of available satellites

It increases because only signals from satellites in the most suitable geometric constellation are selected by the receiver

It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellite signals

45.
ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path

within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid

outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid

outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids

within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these

46.
Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?

short pulse length and narrow beam

long pulse length and wide beam

long pulse length and narrow beam

short pulse length and wide beam

47.
The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because

DME transmits twin pulses

DME pulse recurrence rates are varied

aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies

reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift

48.
There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be

greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland

the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180° and 360°

the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 090° and 270°

greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland

49.
What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centreline

1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centreline

3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline

0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline

0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localiser centreline

50.
Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?

SHF

VHF

UHF

HF

Question Bank

Questions for INDIGO RADIO NAVIGATION

What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?

A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to

In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to fix an aircraft's position?

What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes?

In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?

The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is approximately

ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the published protection range should be accurate to within a maximum error of

In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation is provided by

In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?

At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?

In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the

In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to

An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because

Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is:(pps = pulses per second)

Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?

Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to

The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined by the (i)........ , the maximum unambiguous range by the (ii).........

Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?

In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Selective Availability' (SA) gives the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by

In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air Data input?

What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on board an aircraft?

Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?

The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organised in such a way that the pilot can

A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to

The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies

Given:Magnetic heading 280°VOR radial 090°What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a ""TO"" indication?

The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S, contains

Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)?

An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is

The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies: Transmitter Receiver

An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately

The basic elements of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the

In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?

In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?

An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of

For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds

A DME is located at MSL.An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately

The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates

GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?

The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System

An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?

In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?

In order to obtain an ADF bearing the

In the event of the use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system ?

ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path

Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?

The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because

There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be

What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centreline

Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?