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Questions for INDIGO RADIO NAVIGATION

Answer the following questions

1.

An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately

2.

Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?

3.

In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to fix an aircraft's position?

4.

GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible acording to user (civil or military).Commercial aviation uses

5.

What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation?

6.

Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)?

7.

Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?

8.

Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?

9.

A frequency of airborne weather radar is

10.

Which of the following equipments works on the interrogator/transponder principle?

11.

ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path

12.

The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is

13.

'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to

14.

The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to

15.

DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately

16.

On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates

17.

In which navigation system does the master station transmit a continuous string of pulses on a frequency close to 100 kHz?

18.

Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?

19.

In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of

20.

At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?

21.

The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the

22.

Radar returns, on a B737-400, can be displayed on all Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) screen modes of an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) WITH THE EXCEPTION OF

23.

The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of

24.

Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DMEbased Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station'

25.

Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of

26.

In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to

27.

If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a

28.

Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?

29.

The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is

30.

Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C is correct?

31.

Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained and obtains no external information?

32.

Given : Compass heading 270°Deviation 2°WVariation 30°E Relative bearing 316° What is the QDR?

33.

The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:phase comparison

34.

Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), selected data and values are coloured

35.

A VOR and DME are co-located.You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign.Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the

36.

The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is

37.

Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?

38.

Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?

39.

In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?

40.

A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W.An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W.The aircraft is on VOR radial

41.

A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to

42.

The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organised in such a way that the pilot can

43.

What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL130 could receive information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?

44.

The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical range will it be possible to obtain this information?

 


 

45.

Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?

 


 

46.

The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic

47.

In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation

48.

If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by

49.

The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the

50.

MLS installations notified for operation, unless otherwise stated, provide azimuth coverage of