Email
info@vayudootaviation.com
Phone No
+91 7276526726
become a pilot
Home
About us
courses
CPL
ATPL
RTR(A)
Airline Cadet Program
IGRUA Entrance Prep
B.Sc. Aviation
Pilot Training
INDIA
USA
CANADA
SOUTH AFRICA
NEW ZEALAND
EUROPE
Aircraft Type-Rating
Airbus A320
Boeing 737
Blogs
contact
CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for INDIGO RADIO NAVIGATION
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately
50 NM
105 NM
210 NM
165 NM
2.
Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?
ED 87
WGS 84
EUREF 92
ED 50
3.
In order to obtain an ADF bearing the
sense aerial must be tuned separately
signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials
mode selector should be switched to 'loop'
BFO switch must be selected to 'ON'
4.
Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
almanac data, satellite status information
data to correct receiver clock error, almanac data
time, positions of the satellites
time, data to impair the accuracy of the position fix
5.
A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to
search mode
signal controlled search
memory mode
standby mode
6.
The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is:(pps = pulses per second)
1620 pps
3240 pps
610 pps
713 pps
7.
An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.The aircraft is on VOR radial
285°
262°
278°
255°
8.
Which of the following equipments works on the interrogator/transponder principle?
Global Positioning System (GPS)
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)
9.
How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo Random Noise code
Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency
The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and compares this information with the calculated positions of the satellites
The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite
10.
Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to
transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range
detect the larger water droplets
detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large
obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam
11.
An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is
a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz
bi-lobal circular
omnidirectional
a beam rotating at 30 Hz
12.
In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are
size of the water drops,wavelength/frequency used
rotational speed of radar scanner,range from cloud
range from cloud,wavelength/frequency used
size of the water drops,diameter of radar scanner
13.
Given:VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E,Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E.What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
193°
160°
167°
347°
14.
The basic elements of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the
atomic clock, power supply and transponder
main control station, the monitoring station and the ground antennas
antenna, the receiver and the central control unit (CDU)
control, space and user segments
15.
A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
Four
Eight
Two
Six
16.
DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately
1000 MHz
300 MHz
110 MHz
600 MHz
17.
Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation ?
It is of no use to civil aviation
It can provide DME distance
It can provide a magnetic bearing
It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing
18.
One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/ GPS is to
monitor the satellites' orbits and status
compute the user position from the received user messages and to transmit the computed position back to the user segment
transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to determine time, position and velocity
transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes autonomously
19.
The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because
DME pulse recurrence rates are varied
DME transmits twin pulses
reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift
aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies
20.
How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver?
It removes the associated magenta deviation bar and/or pointer from the display
The pointer flashes and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears
The pointer rotates around the display and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears
The deviation bar and/or pointer change colour to red and flash intermittently
21.
An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
4.5
3.0
1.5
6.0
22.
The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is
1050 +/- 0.5 Mhz
1120 +/- 0.6 Mhz
1090 +/- 0.3 Mhz
1030 +/- 0.2 Mhz
23.
The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second. The slant range from the ground transponder was
165 NM
186 NM
330 NM
296 NM
24.
A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to
200 feet above the runway threshold
runway surface
200 feet above the inner marker
50 feet above ILS reference point
25.
For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds
100
60
80
200
26.
Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit display represent
2.0 degrees
0.5 degrees
2.5 degrees
1.5 degrees
27.
Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources
The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar
A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
28.
In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is
totally prohibited
only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and to protect equipment
unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas
permitted anywhere
29.
Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?
altostratus
cirrocumulus
cumulus
stratus
30.
The maximum range of primary radar depends on
frequency
pulse length
pulse recurrence frequency
wave length
31.
What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
It may prevent the reception of signals
It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected
The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using an algorithm and information from unaffected signals
It causes multipath propagation
32.
The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°.Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be
centred
left of centre
right of centre
centred with the 'fail' flag showing
33.
In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil
SHF
VHF
UHF
EHF
34.
During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away.The reason for this is that the
aeroplane is below the 'line of sight' altitude
altitude is too high
aeroplane is circling around the station
range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM
35.
In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines
maximum theoretical range
minimum range
beam width
target discrimination
36.
In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by
timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver
the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a minimum number of satellites
the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a known position
timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to reach and return from a satellite in a known position
37.
Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required?
2000
5000
7000
38.
Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
110.20 MHz
108.25 MHz
112.10 MHz
109.15 MHz
39.
Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both frequencies
The higher frequency is only used to transmit the P code
The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
The lower frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
40.
Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?
long pulse length and narrow beam
short pulse length and narrow beam
long pulse length and wide beam
short pulse length and wide beam
41.
The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is
the computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, GPS etc)
another source of aircaft position, it is independent of other position sources (IRS, Radio, ILS etc)
the actual position of the aircraft at any point in time
the same as that given on the No. 1 IRS
42.
Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
UHF
SHF
HF
VHF
43.
Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold?
A DME co-located with the MLS transmitters
Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and elevation transmissions
Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary radar pulses from the aircraft to MLS station
Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses from the MLS station to the aircraft
44.
Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is:(pps = pulses per second)
308 pps
405 pps
782 pps
375 pps
45.
In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines
beam width
minimum measurable range
target discrimination
maximum measurable range
46.
Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
Tropospheric
Multipath
Ionospheric
Receiver noise
47.
Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?
VOR/DME radial/distance
Pressure altitude
Magnetic heading
Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
48.
In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR into an RNAV, the VOR
has to be positively identified by one of the pilots
does not have to be in range when entered or used
must be in range
does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used
49.
In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation pattern
CONTOUR
WEATHER
MAPPING
MANUAL
50.
The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is located 4.6 NM from the threshold. Assuming a glide slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer marker is
1450 FT
1350 FT
1300 FT
1400 FT
Submit
Make New Set