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Questions for INDIGO RADIO NAVIGATION

Answer the following questions

1.

An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately

2.

Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?

3.

In order to obtain an ADF bearing the

4.

Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?

5.

A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to

6.

The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is:(pps = pulses per second)

7.

An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.The aircraft is on VOR radial

8.

Which of the following equipments works on the interrogator/transponder principle?

9.

How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?

10.

Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to

11.

An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is

12.

In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are

13.

Given:VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E,Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E.What VOR radial is the aircraft on?

14.

The basic elements of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the

15.

A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?

16.

DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately

17.

Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation ?

18.

One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/ GPS is to

19.

The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because

20.

How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver?

21.

An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)

22.

The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is

23.

The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second. The slant range from the ground transponder was

24.

A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to

25.

For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds

26.

Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit display represent

27.

Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?

28.

In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is

29.

Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?

30.

The maximum range of primary radar depends on

31.

What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?

32.

The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°.Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be

33.

In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil

34.

During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away.The reason for this is that the

35.

In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines

36.

In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by

37.

Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required?

38.

Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

39.

Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?

 


 

40.

Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?

41.

The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is

42.

Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?

43.

Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold?

44.

Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is:(pps = pulses per second)

45.

In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines

46.

Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?

47.

Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?

48.

In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR into an RNAV, the VOR

49.

In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation pattern

50.

The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is located 4.6 NM from the threshold. Assuming a glide slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer marker is