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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for MISCELLANEOUS 4903-5258
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is :1. slow2. heavy3. in a clean configuration4. flying with a high thrustThe combination of correct statement is
2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 4
2.
A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with
a runway visual range of at least 350 m
no runway visual range limits
a runway visual range of at least 50 m
a runway visual range of at least 200 m
3.
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than
12 000 ft
10 000 ft
13 000 ft
11 000 ft
4.
If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be
Equal to the actual.
Less than the actual.
Greater than the actual.
Dependent on the temperature.
5.
During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is
the outer marker (OM).
the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).
the middle marker.
the FAF.
6.
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?
9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes
7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes
9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes
7.
An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to maintain its assigned level,and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft, if
at FL 430
at FL410
below FL 410
above FL 410
8.
For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ?
Steady snow
Freezing fog
Frost
Freezing rain
9.
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied
to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross
to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less 760 m
Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off
to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing threshold
10.
During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing must be made immediately. Following this incident the pilot
must file a airworthiness report
must file an AIR PROX report: the Control Tower having given no warning
must file a Bird Strike report
is not obliged to report this incident
11.
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the glide path2- flies below the glide path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a decreasing true airspeedthe combination of correct statements is
1,3.
2,4.
2,3.
1,4.
12.
For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in
120 seconds
132 seconds
90 seconds
60 seconds
13.
The validity period of a ""certificate of airworthiness"" varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is maintained.If the maintenance is carried out according to an approved programme and done in a maintenance shop approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity period is
three years.
three years if the aircraft has not undergone major modifications.
three years for public transport aircraft and five years for the others.
three years for public transport aircraft and one year for the others.
14.
A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft weight in an emergency
until the central tank is empty in order to cope with the wing and landing gear constraints at landing touchdown
unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements : 2.7% in approach configuration with 1 engine inoperative and 3.2% in landing configuration with all engines operative
in order to reduce the landing distance to 60% of the effective runway length
in order to reach the maximum structural landing weight in less than 15 minutes after activation of the jettisoning system
15.
Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately
22500 ft
27000 ft
24500
29000 ft
16.
The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the
stalling speed
value of the stall angle of attack
tuck under
roll rate
17.
The minimum flight crew for night transport of passengers or according to the Instrument flight rules is
2 pilots for turbo-jet aircraft and turbo-prop aircraft with more than 9 passenger seats
1 pilot for any aircraft weighing less than 5.7 tons, provided that the maximum certified number of passenger seats is less than 9
2 pilots for any turbo-prop aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or for any turbo-jet aircraft
2 pilots for any aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or having more than 9 passenger seats
18.
Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will:1 - remain on the runway,2 - clear the runway using the first available taxiway,3 - keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical power supply on,4 - turn off all systems.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:1
2,4.
2,3.
1,3.
1,4.
19.
The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least
Three inertial navigation units.
Two inertial navigation units.
Two inertial navigation units and a DECCA.
One inertial navigation unit.
20.
In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft
The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence
The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
21.
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3 Km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a
LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000.ft)
MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 n (1 000 ft)
LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)
HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)
22.
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North with respect to the
true North
compass North
magnetic North
grid North
23.
At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertial systems of an aircraft flying on the LONDON- ANCHORAGE line occurs in the geographic North pole region. The wind is nil, the grid heading at this moment is 315°. The crew then uses the Sun to continue the flight. The bearing of the Sun on occurence of the failure is :NOTE: The time equation is nil. The chart used is a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the zero meridian, the Grid North is in direction of the geographic North pole
325°.
000°.
035°.
180°.
24.
The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the tip of the left wing is
70°
140°
220°
110°
25.
ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with
the air transport of live animals
the technical operational use of aircraft
the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials
the noise pollution of aircraft
26.
If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure inspection reveals evidence of freezing, the correct action is to
complete departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover (protection) time for the prevailing conditons and type of fluid used has not been exceeded
carry out a further de-icing process
switch on all the aeroplane anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until clear of icing conditions when airborne
complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility of further freezing
27.
Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a operations manual and also issue the amendments to keep it up to date?
Owner of the aircraft.
Aircraft operator.
Aircraft producer.
ATS authority of the state of registry.
28.
The inertreal navigtion system (INS) indicates:Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'WDrift: 6°L (left)The route followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used:RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian.The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic North Pole).The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at this moment:(the distance DME is in the box)
3
2
4
1
29.
The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to
the aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them.
the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil aircraft.
the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil commercial transport aircraft.
the aircraft used by police, customs and defense departments.
30.
The term decision height (DH) is used for
an indirect approach.
a conventional approach.
a conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.
a precision approach.
31.
If both precision navigation systems of an aircraft are unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if you cannot establish communication with the air traffic control, you
return to departure airport
land at the nearest airport
descend below the MNPS space
take an intermediate flight level
32.
An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to
reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be very slippery on landing
maintain the normal approach speed up to landing
increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift by deteriorating the boundary layer
carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid exposing too much lifting surface to the rain
33.
When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever possible :distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above its path
distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above its path.
distinct form the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path.
distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right of and under its path.
identical
34.
Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear ?
Vertical speed.
Pitch angle.
Groundspeed.
Indicated airspeed.
35.
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :550 m
550 m
800 m
350 m
500 m
36.
The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about
10 minutes.
30 minutes.
1 minute.
3 minutes.
37.
For stable clouds:1- the most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and -10°C2- the most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and -15°C3- icing becomes rare at t < -18°C4- icing becomes rare at t < -30°C5- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03mm6- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2mmWhich of the following combinations contains all the correct statements?
2001-03-05
2001-04-06
2002-04-06
2002-03-05
38.
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when
it is rotating (before taking-off).
leaving the icing zone.
it is implementing its own anti-icing devices.
releasing the brakes in order to take-off.
39.
The authorization for the transport of hazardous materials is specified on the
registration certificate.
air carrier certificate.
insurance certificate.
airworthiness certificate.
40.
The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:1. An aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices).2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts).3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc.).The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
1, 2 and 3.
2 and 3.
1.
3.
41.
A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to
3600 m
1500 m
2400 m
1600 m
42.
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act to
the Autority of the State of the operator only
both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
the Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful interference
the local authority only
43.
In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart whose printed over grid is parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of geographic North along this meridian.The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°, the grid route at this moment is
110°.
060°.
340°
240°.
44.
The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available is
the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc
various visual methods
firing shellcrackers
broadcasting of recorded distress calls
45.
What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked) is
7800
7500
7600
7700
46.
According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to
MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760 m
LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway
MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
47.
The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additonnal procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by
the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
48.
Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported :Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported : a
as a percentage of the total lenght of the runway available as the final item of a SNOWTAM
by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the lenght in metres
it is not reported
in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM
49.
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when
surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.
it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.
its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.
it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.
50.
Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterize
a plastic fire.
a slow depressurization.
an electrical fire.
a fast depressurization.
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