Vayudoot Aviation

1.
According to the recommended ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A"" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches

3 000 ft

1 500 ft

2 000 ft

1 000 ft

2.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are

MDH=600 ft and visibility=2400 m

MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 m

MDH=700 ft and visibility=2600 m

MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m

3.
In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft

The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence

The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.

The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.

The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.

4.
The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a

low weight and low speed

high weight and high speed

high weight and low speed

low weight and high speed

5.
For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that : (Annex 6, Part I)

Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.

Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.

6.
In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to take-off by:1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft 3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft 4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft The combination regrouping all the correct statements is

2, 3

1, 2

1, 4

3, 4

7.
A class B fire is a fire of

electrical source fire

special fire: metal, gas, chemical product

solid material usually of organic nature

liquid or liquefiable solid

8.
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels

285 and 420.

280 and 390.

275 and 400.

280 and 400.

9.
A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least

200 m

100 m

250 m

50 m

10.
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when

its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.

surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.

it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.

it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.

11.
90 % of bird strikes occur

under 500 m

between 500 and 1 500 m

between 500 and 1 000 m

above 1 000 m

12.
If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so

during final phase of approach.

in a holding stack, after control clearance

under flight level 50 (FL50).

in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.

13.
In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that

external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm.

possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.

external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid.

external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual.

14.
Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It contains more particularly:1 - the weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination,2 - one copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet,3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's materiel report,4 - the en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator,5 - notification for special loadings,6 - for each flight, details of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is

2,4

1,2,3,4,5,6

1,3,5

2,3,4,5

15.
A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is

2, 4, 5

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

1, 3, 5

2, 3, 4

16.
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.2- speed is greater than 123 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 95 kt.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is

1 and 2.

2 and 4.

1 and 4.

3 and 4.

17.
A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done

Prior entering the NAT region.

A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done :

At or prior entering the NAT region.

As soon as possible after entering the NAT region.

18.
A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft weight in an emergency

unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements : 2.7% in approach configuration with 1 engine inoperative and 3.2% in landing configuration with all engines operative

in order to reduce the landing distance to 60% of the effective runway length

in order to reach the maximum structural landing weight in less than 15 minutes after activation of the jettisoning system

until the central tank is empty in order to cope with the wing and landing gear constraints at landing touchdown

19.
The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is :60 NM

90 NM.

60 NM.

30 NM.

120 NM.

20.
In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes

turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 20° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)

turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 28° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)

turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the aeroplane has reached and can maintain throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above terrain and the highest obstacle.

no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise abatement procedure.

21.
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the protection time of the anti-icing fluid

need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.

must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off.

must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid for take-off.

must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.

22.
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act to

the Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful interference

both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator

the local authority only

the Autority of the State of the operator only

23.
Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds ?

an area liable to flooding

long grass

edible rubbish

short gang-mown grass

24.
For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude will

increases the hydroplaning speed.

maintains the hydroplaning speed.

maintains or increases the hydroplaning speed.

decreases the hydroplaning speed.

25.
You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)3 - gas4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is

2,3,4

1,2,3,4

1,2,4

1,2,3

26.
When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the right side, you adopt a path, whenever possible

identical to the one of the preceding airplane.

distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the left of and under its path.

distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the right of and above its path.

different from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path.

27.
In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart whose printed over grid is parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of geographic North along this meridian.The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°, the grid route at this moment is

240°.

340°

110°.

060°.

28.
An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfecly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000°.The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode.If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at Q will be

345°.

334°.

003°.

328°.

29.
For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than

60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.

30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.

30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.

60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.

30.
Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the

temperature of the hydraulic fluid.

pressure of the hydraulic fluid.

pressure of the pneumatic tyres.

temperature of the brakes.

31.
In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will :1. evacuate women and children first.2. have the passengers embark directly in the liferafts.3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplane's flotation ability.4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is

2, 3, 4

1, 2, 3, 4

1,4

2,3

32.
After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you

release the parking brake and you approach the wheels sidewards

apply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards.

release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore.

apply the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from fore or aft.

33.
When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects:1 - an increase in the take-off distance2 - a diminution of the take-off run3 - an increase in the stalling speed4 - a diminution of the stalling speed5 - a diminution of the climb gradientThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is

2, 4, 5

1, 2, 3

2, 3, 5

1, 3, 5

34.
The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is

121.5 MHz.

131.8 MHz.

118.5 MHz.

243 MHz.

35.
The information concerning dangerous products that passengers may carry, are listed in the

IATA document ""Dangerous products transportation"".

ICAO document named ""Technical safety instructions for the air transportation of dangerous products""

aircraft's flight manual.

JAR-OPS documentation.JAR-OPS documentation.

36.
The correct definition of a safe forced landing is

an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board

a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants

a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants

an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board or on the surface

37.
In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories.The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is

D

C

E

B

38.
Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by

The ICAO document entitled ""Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air"".

The directives of the Community Union.

The ICAO document entitled ""Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods "".

The IATA document entitled ""Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods by air"".

39.
The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is

10 minutes.

15 minutes.

5 minutes.

20 minutes.

40.
For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of

0.6

0.7

0.8

0.5

41.
One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it

occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane

occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane

can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane

can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes

42.
On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to

100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed.

400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed.

300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed.

200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed.

43.
After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres

from any side.

only from front or rear side.

only from left or right side.

under no circumstances.

44.
The terminal VOR transmittes the following weather data. When do you expect carburettor icing?

Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +15°CDew Point (DEWP) : -5°C

Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +10°CDew Point (DEWP) : +7°C

Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +25°CDew Point (DEWP) : +5°C

Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : -10°CDew point (DEWP) : -15°C

45.
The inertreal navigtion system (INS) indicates:Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'WDrift: 6°L (left)The route followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used:RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian.The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic North Pole).The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at this moment:(the distance DME is in the box)

3

1

4

2

46.
In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain :1. you increase your approach speed,2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear,3. you decrease your approach speed,4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices,5. you land as smoothly as possible,6. you brake energically.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is

1,2,4

1,4,5,6

2,3,4

3,5

47.
A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to

2400 m

1500 m

3600 m

1600 m

48.
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will first see the

green flashing light

red steady light

white steady light

green steady light

49.
An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles... etc), bus is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and

climb or descent 500 ft

climb or descend 1 000 ft

climb 1 000 ft or descent 500 ft

climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft

50.
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?

7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes

9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes

11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes

9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes

Question Bank

Questions for MISCELLANEOUS 4903-5258

According to the recommended ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A"" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are

In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft

The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a

For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that : (Annex 6, Part I)

A class B fire is a fire of

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels

A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least

In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when

90 % of bird strikes occur

If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so

In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that

A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is

A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done

A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft weight in an emergency

The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is :60 NM

In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes

An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the protection time of the anti-icing fluid

Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act to

Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds ?

For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude will

You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)3 - gas4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is

When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the right side, you adopt a path, whenever possible

For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than

Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the

After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you

The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is

The information concerning dangerous products that passengers may carry, are listed in the

The correct definition of a safe forced landing is

Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by

The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is

For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of

One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it

On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to

After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres

The terminal VOR transmittes the following weather data. When do you expect carburettor icing?

A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to

During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will first see the

For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?