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Question Bank
Questions for INDIGO METEOROLOGY(3272-4089)
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the
warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate
2.
Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation ?
CI
AS
NS
CB
3.
Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the following METAR ?16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003 M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000 =
Meteorological visibility 400 m, RVR for runway 16 1000 m, dew point -2°C, freezing fog.
RVR for runway 16 1000 m, meteorological visibility increasing in the next 2 hours to 2000 m, vertical visibility 300 m, temperature -2°C.
Meteorological visibility 1000 m, RVR 400 m, freezing level at 300 m, variable winds, temperature 2°C.
RVR for runway 14 1500 m, meteorological visibility 400 m, QNH 1026 hPa, wind 160° at 3 kt.
4.
In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface visibility when
the surface wind is strong and gusty
a rapid moving cold front has just passed the area
there is a low level inversion
cumulus clouds have developed in the afternoon
5.
Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight documentation in the tropics?
The meteorological services are unable to provide such a chart.
Tropopause informations are of no value.
The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flown.
The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very cold and therefore not important.
6.
Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?
At the centre of a high-pressure system
In the transition zone between two air masses
Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area during the winter months
At the centre of a low-pressure system
7.
An easterly wave is a
disturbance in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough
small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its trough
wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough
wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its trough
8.
The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the
relative humidity
stability of the air
dewpoint
air temperature
9.
The dewpoint temperature
can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping pressure constant
can not be lower than the air temperature
can not be equal to the air temperature
can be reached by lowering the pressure whilst keeping temperature constant
10.
In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered ?
Ahead of a warm front in the winter
Behind a warm front in the summer
Ahead of a cold front in the winter
Ahead of a cold front in the summer
11.
At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C, according to the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350 ?
-58°C
-50°C
-54°C.
-56,5°C.
12.
In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and downdrafts simultaneously?
Cumulus stage
Dissipating stage
Mature stage
In all stages
13.
8/8 stratus base 200 FT/AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of France, the QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kt.What change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter?
Winter: OVC base 500 FT/AGL, summer SCT base 3000 FT/AGL.
Winter: SCT base 3000 FT/AGL, summer OVC base 500 FT/AGL.
Winter: BKN base 2500 FT/AGL, summer BKN base 3500 FT/AGL.
Winter: clear sky, summer BKN CB base 1500 FT/AGL.
14.
Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude ?
When the altimeter has no position error.
At standard temperature
At sea level when the temperature is 0°C.
When the altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa.
15.
If Paris reports a wind of 16020KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?
14020KT
19040KT
17015KT
16030KT
16.
Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich - London at FL 280
040 / 60
220 / 60
160 / 90
250 / 80
17.
With what type of cloud is ""GR"" precipitation most commonly associated?
CB
AS
ST
CC
18.
SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to
all aircraft
VFR operations only
light aircraft only
heavy aircraft only
19.
During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012 hPa), the true altitude is constantly increasing. What action, if any, should be taken ?
Recheck the QNH because one of the QNH values must be wrong
None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma is warmer than the air around Marseille
Have your altimeter checked, because its readings are obviously wrong
Compensate by heading further to the left
20.
How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts ?
The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots.
The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per hour.
The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour.
The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knots.
21.
Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?
Cold air passing over warm ground
The passage of fronts
Dry, warm air passing over warm ground
Heat loss from the ground on clear nights
22.
Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in
veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface.
backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface.
veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.
backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.
23.
The geostrophic wind depends on
density, earth's rotation, geographic latitude
earth's rotation, geographic latitude, centripetal force
geographic latitude, centripetal force, height
centripetal force, height, pressure gradient
24.
Which of the following is a common result of subsidence ?
An inversion over a large area with haze, mist
CB-clouds and thunderstorms over a large area
Wide spread NS and AS clouds and intense precipitation
Clear air turbulence at higher altitudes
25.
Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428What must you consider when making performance calculations?
The runway will be wet.
Aquaplaning conditions.
The braking action will be medium to good.
The friction coefficient is 0.28.
26.
The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm front is the
saturation of the warm air by rain falling into it and evaporating
reduction of outgoing radiation due to clouds
warm air moving over a cold surface
saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporating
27.
Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature profile :3000 FT +15°C ,6000 FT +8°C ,10000 FT +1°C ,14000 FT -6°C , 18000 FT -14°C, 24000 FT , -26°C .At which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest?
FL 150
FL 220
FL 180
FL 80
28.
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 38662 FT pressure level (FL 390) ?
300 hPa
200 hPa
700 hPa
500 hPa
29.
Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when
water vapour condenses.
relative humidity reaches 98%.
temperature and dew point are nearly equal.
water vapour is present.
30.
If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in the warm air and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of freezing rain the lowest ?
12000 feet
3000 feet
5000 feet
9000 feet
31.
The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from ISA is -15°C below FL 100.What is the true altitude of FL 100?
8590 FT.
9790 FT.
11410 FT.
10210 FT.
32.
What is the meaning of the abbreviation ""SCT"" ?
1 - 4 oktas
5 - 7 oktas
3 - 4 oktas
1 - 2 oktas
33.
How would you characterise an air temperature of -55°C at the 200 hPa level over western Europe?
Very high
High
Within +/-5°C of ISA
Low
34.
Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud ?
CS
ST
AS
CC
35.
A vertical spacing of 1000 FT, is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical separation be?
More than 1000 FT
Without QNH information, it can not be determined
Less than 1000 FT
It remains 1000 FT
36.
The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of ascending unsaturated air because
moist air is heavier than dry air
water vapour doesn't cool as rapidly as dry air
water vapour absorbs the incoming heat from the sun
heat is released during the condensation process
37.
An airmass is stable when
temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height
the lapse rate is 1°C per 100 m
temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height
the vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and disappears.
38.
An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon ?
Crosswind from the right
Headwind
Crosswind from the left
Tailwind
39.
Where is a squall line to be expected?
At the surface position of a warm front.
In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels.
In front of an active cold front.
Behind a cold front.
40.
Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature inversion ?
Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain
Heating of the air by subsidence
Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds
The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.
41.
What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?
Change of flight level.
Decrease of speed.
Increase of speed.
Change of course.
42.
Which one of the following statements regarding the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is correct?
The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream.
Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected within the area of the ITCZ.
Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ.
The ITCZ does not change its position during the course of the year.
43.
While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3000 FT below its core) and OAT is decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind?
A tailwind.
A headwind.
Crosswind from the right
Crosswind from the left
44.
The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
1016 hPa
More than 1016 hPa
It is not possible to give a definitive answer
Less than 1016 hPa
45.
What is the main energy source of a tropical revolving storm?
Latent heat released from condensing water vapour.
The equatorial jet stream.
Cold air advancing from temperate latitudes.
Temperature difference between equatorial low pressure trough and subtropical high pressure belt.
46.
The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of the type Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe Clear Air Turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpleasant for the passengers but the manoeuvring will not be affected essentially.
The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing-board (small scale) and will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity, but will make flight a little more difficult. The passengers will seldom notice anything of this turbulence.
The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage of worn out type. The manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even impossible. For the passengers the flight will be unpleasant.
The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be difficult to manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfort.
47.
Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled cloud droplets?
Altocumulus and altostratus.
Stratocumulus and cirrostratus
Altostratus and cirrocumulus
Stratus and cumulonimbus
48.
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts?
Anvil stage
Cumulus stage
Mature stage
Dissipating stage
49.
In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued ?
Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome.
Marked mountain waves.
Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome.
A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR.
50.
Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air
with cold mass properties
with warm mass properties
that is stable
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