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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for INDIGO FLIGHT PLANNING (2108-2519)
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
A helicopter is on a 150 NM leg to an off-shore oil rig. Its TAS is 130 kt with a 20 kt tailwind, its endurance is 3h30min without reserve. Upon reaching destination, it is asked to proceed outbound to locate a ship in distress, on a track which gives a 15 kt tailwind. Maintaining zero reserve on return to the oil rig, the helicopter can fly outbound for distance of
158.6 NM
224.5 NM
222.1 NM
160.3 NM
2.
In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2 000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard.The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN of
140 NM
130 NM
110 NM
120 NM
3.
In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of the following letters schould be entered in Item 8 (Type of Flight)
N
N/S
X
G
4.
Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg, maximum landing mass 56200 kg, maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg, dry operating mass 35 500 kg, estimated load 14 500 kg, estimated trip fuel 4 900 kg, minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kg.Find: maximum additional load
5 600 kg
3 000 kg
4 000 kg
7 000 kg
5.
Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg (30% total reserve fuel is included). Assume the groundspeed on this trip is constant. When the aeroplane has done half the distance the remaining fuel is 70 kg. Is diversion to a nearby alternate necessary?
Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, because the remaining fuel is not sufficient.
Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, unless the captain decides to continue on his own responsability
Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because the reserve fuel has not been used completely
Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because it is allowed to calculate without reserve fuel
6.
An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at 1215 UTC. In the ATS flight plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with
EDDM 1215
EDDM 0215
EDDM 1415
EDDM 2H15
7.
From the options given below select those flights which require flight plan notification:I - Any Public Transport flight.2 - Any IFR flight3 - Any flight which is to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the provision of the Alerting Service or the operations of Search and Rescue.4 - Any cross-border flights5 - Any flight which involves overflying water
1+2+3
1+5
3+4+5
2+4
8.
Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kgLoad= 7600 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983 kgAlternate fuel= 1100 kgContingency fuel 102 kgThe estimated landing mass at alternate should be
42210 kg.
42195 kg
42312 kg.
42093 kg
9.
Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Minimum Take-off Fuel 7400 kgFind: Maximum allowable take-off fuel
11400 kg
14400 kg
11100 kg
8600 kg
10.
A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. The wind component is 50 kt tailwind. What is the still air distance?
499 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
511 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
414 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
406 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
11.
In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet would be entered as
F320
FL320
32000
S3200
12.
The quantity of fuel which is calculated to be necessary for a jet aeroplane to fly IFR from departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5352 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. Alternate fuel is 4380 kg. Contingency should be 5% of trip fuel.What is the minimum required quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off?
13000 kg
14500 kg
13370 kg
13220 kg.
13.
In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the departure time entered is the
estimated off-block time
estimated time over the first point en route
estimated take-off time
allocated slot time
14.
Given:maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg maximum landing mass 56 200 kg maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg dry operating mass 35 500 kg estimated load 14 500 kg estimated trip fuel 4 900kg minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kgFind the maximum allowable take-off fuel
14 400 kg
11 400 kg
8 600 kg
11 100 kg
15.
An aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be changed from IFR to VFR. Is it possible?
No, you have to remain IFR in accordance to the filed flight plan
Yes, but only with permission from ATC.
Yes, the pilot in command must inform ATC using the phrase ""cancelling my IFR flight"".
No, only ATC can order you to do this.
16.
In the ATS flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 knots will be entered as
0470K
N0470
KN470
N470
17.
On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as ""H"" for ""Heavy""
has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136 000 kg
has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140 000 kg
is of the highest wake turbulence category
requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum certified take-off mass
18.
The fuel burn off is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0,8. If the relative density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be
213 kg/h
188 kg/h
200 kg/h
267 kg/h
19.
Following in-flight depressurisation, a turbine powered aeroplane is forced to divert to an en-route alternate airfield. If actual flight conditions are as forecast, the minimum quantity of fuel remaining on arrival at the airfield will be
at least equivalent to 30 minutes flying time
at least equivalent to the quantity required to fly to another aerodrome in the event that weather conditions so require
at least equivalent to 45 minutes flying time
laid down by the operator, with the quantity being specified in the operating manual
20.
If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your flight plan, you write
ZZZZ
XXXX
////
AAAA
21.
When a pilot fills in a flight plan, he must indicate the wake turbulence category. This category is a function of which mass?
actual take-off mass
estimated take-off mass
maximum certified landing mass
maximum certified take-off mass
22.
The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with a fuel density of 0,80. If the density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be
220 l/h
206 l/h
176 l/h
235 l/h
23.
On an IFR navigation chart, in a 1° quadrant of longitude and latitude, appears the following information ""80"". This means that within this quadrant
the minimum flight level is FL 80
the floor of the airway is at 8 000 ft
the minimum safe altitude is 8 000 ft
the altitude of the highest obstacle is 8 000 ft
24.
From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known short unserviceability of VOR, TACAN, and NDB ?
NOTAM
SIGMET
AIP (Air Information Publication)
ATCC broadcasts
25.
In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a ""change of speed"" is defined as
10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more
5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more
20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more
20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more
26.
It is possible, in flight, to:1 - file an IFR flight plan2 - modify an active IFR or VFR flight plan3 - cancel an active VFR flight plan4 - close an active VFR flight planWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
1 - 2 - 3
1 - 2 - 3 - 4
2001-02-04
2 - 3 - 4
27.
Given :Distance X to Y 2700 NMMach Number 0.75Temperature -45°CMean wind component 'on' 10 kt tailwindMean wind compontent 'back' 35 kt tailwindThe distance from X to the point of equal time (PET) between X and Y is
1386 NM
1350 NM
1313 NM
1425 NM
28.
The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is
60 min
45 min.
Variable with wind velocity
30 min.
29.
The purpose of the decision point procedure is ?
To reduce the landing weight and thus reduce the structural stress on the aircraft
To increase the safety of the flight
To increase the amount of extra fuel.
To reduce the minimum required fuel and therefore be able to increase the traffic load
30.
Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kgLoad= 7600 kgTrip fuel (TF)= 2040 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983 kgAlternate fuel= 1100 kgContingency fuel= 5% of trip fuelWhich of the listed estimated masses is correct?
Estimated take-off mass= 43295 kg
Estimated take-off mass= 45233 kg
Estimated landing mass at destination= 43193 kg
Estimated landing mass at destination= 43295 kg
31.
When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given flight, one must take into account :1 - the wind2 - foreseeable airborne delays3 - other weather forecasts4 - any foreseeable conditions which may delay landingThe combination which provides the correct statement is
1 - 2 - 3 - 4
03-Jan
03-Jan
1 - 2 - 3
32.
To carry out a VFR flight to an off-shore platform, the minimum fuel quantity on board is
that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 5 %
that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 10 %
identical to that defined for VFR flights over land
at least equal to that defined for IFR flights
33.
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight plans 1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel.2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate
Both statements
Statement 2 only
Neither statement
Statement 1 only
34.
On a flight plan you are required to indicate in the box marked ""speed"" the planned speed for the first part of the cruise or for the entire cruise.This speed is
The true airspeed
The estimated ground speed
The indicated airspeed
The equivalent airspeed
35.
For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:Flight time: 3h06minThe reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel.Taxi fuel: 8 kgBlock fuel: 118 kgHow much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time?
27 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel.
30 kg trip fuel and 9 kg reserve fuel
39 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel
39 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel
36.
A descent is planned from 7500 ft MSL so as to arrive at 1000 ft MSL 6 NM from a VORTAC.With a GS of 156 kts and a rate of descent of 800 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is
30,2 NM
27,1 NM
11,7 NM
15,0 NM
37.
If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, True Course (TC) 350°, W/V 320/40, distance from departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours, and actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The Point of Equal Time (PET) is reached at
1221 UTC
1213 UTC
1233 UTC
1203 UTC
38.
An aircraft, following a 215° true track, must fly over a 10 600 ft obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1 500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport close by, which is almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the temperature is ISA -15°C, the minimum flight level will be
120
140
150
130
39.
Given : true track 017, W/V 340/30, TAS 420 ktFind : wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)
WCA -2° , GS 396 kt
WCA +2° , GS 416 kt
WCA +2° , GS 396 kt
WCA -2° , GS 426 kt
40.
When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly changing to VFR, the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be
X
N/S
G
Y
41.
A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled flight: Paris-Orly to Angouleme, Paris Orly as alternate. Following heavy snow falls, Angouleme airport will be closed at the expected time of arrival. The airline decides before departure to plan a re-routing of thatflight to Limoges
The RPL must be cancelled for that day and a specific flight plan has to be filed
It is not possible to plan another destination and the fIight has to be simply cancelled that day (scheduled flight and not chartered).
The pilot-in-command must advise ATC of his intention to divert to Limoges at least 15 minutes before the planned time of arrival
The airline's ""Operations "" Department has to tansmit a change in the RPL at the ATC office, at least half an hour before the planned time of departure.
42.
In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, concerning equipment, the letter to be used to indicate that the aircraft is equipped with a mode A 4096 codes transponder with altitude reporting capability is
P
C
A
S
43.
Find the distance from waypoint 3 (WP 3) to the critical point. Given: distance from WP 3 to WP 4 = 750 NM, TAS out 430 kt, TAS return 425 kt, Tailwind component out 30 kt, head wind component return 40 kt
403 NM
408 NM
375 NM
342 NM
44.
When using decision point procedure, you reduce the
reserve fuel from 10% down to 5%.
contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between the decision airport and destination
holding fuel by 30%.
contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between decision point and destination
45.
The cruising speed to write in the appropriate box of a flight plan is
indicated air speed
true air speed
calibrated air speed
ground speed
46.
An aircraft is in cruising flight at FL 095, IAS 155kt. The pilot intends to descend at 500 ft/min to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2 000 FT (QNH 1 030hPa). The TAS remains constant in the descent, wind is negligeable, temperature standard. At which distance from MAN should the pilot commence the descent?
40 NM
42 NM
45 NM
48 NM
47.
You must fly IFR on an airway orientated 135° magnetic with a MSA at 7 800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 1 025 hPa and the temperature is ISA + 10°, the minimum flight level you must fly at is
90
70
75
80
48.
A twin-jet aeroplane carries out the WASHINGTON-PARIS flight. When it reaches point K (35°N - 048°W) a non-mechanical event makes the Captain consider rerouting to one of the three following fields. The flight conditions are: - from K to BERMUDAS (distance 847NM, headwind component=18 kt) - from K to SANTA MARIA (distance 1112 NM, tailwind component=120 kt)- from K to GANDER (distance 883 NM, wind component=0).With an aeroplane true airspeed of 460 kt, the field selected will be that more rapidly reached
BERMUDAS or GANDER, or SANTA MARIA
BERMUDAS
SANTA MARIA
Either GANDER or BERMUDAS
49.
In an ATS flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position as a bearing and distance from a VOR, the group of figures should consist of
VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in kilometres
VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in nautical miles
VOR ident, true bearing and distance in kilometres
full name of VOR, true bearing and distance in kilometres
50.
When an ATS flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight, the flight plan should be amended or cancelled in the event of the off-block time being delayed by
90 minutes or more
30 minutes or more
60 minutes or more
45 minutes or more
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