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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for PERFORMANCE (1718-2089)
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
Loads must be adequately secured in order to
prevent excessive 'g'-loading during the landing flare
avoid any centre of gravity (cg) movement during flight.
allow steep turns.
avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft damage
2.
The speed VS is defined as
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable.
speed for best specific range.
design stress speed
safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway
3.
'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied
after cabin depressurization
to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate
to conduct a visual approach if VASI is available.
after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude.
4.
Assume:Aeroplane gross mass: 4750 kgCentre of gravity at station: 115.8What will be the new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg is moved from the station 30 to station 120?
Station 117.69
Station 118.33
Station 118.25
Station 120.22
5.
What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
It will increase the take-off distance available.
It will increase the accelerate stop distance available.
It will increase the take-off distance
It will decrease the take-off distance.
6.
Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb.
The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.
50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass.
On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited.
7.
V1 has to be
higher than than VR
equal to or higher than VMCA.
equal to or higher than VMCG
equal to or higher than V2.
8.
Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
Allowable take-off mass increases
Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft PA.
Allowable take-off mass decreases
There is no effect on allowable take-off mass
9.
The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
The climb limited take-off mass would decrease.
The effect would vary depending upon the height of any obstacle within the net take-off flight path.
None.
The climb limited take-off mass would increase
10.
In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
In the take-off run available
In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance
In the accelerate stop distance available
In the all-engine take-off distance.
11.
Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting
improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.
improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.
decreases rate of climb and increses angle of climb.
decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.
12.
If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is correct ?
The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.
The take-off is not permitted
The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.
The VMCG will be lowered to V1.
13.
Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be
same as that for clean configuration.
lower than that for clean configuration
higher than that for clean configuration
changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration
14.
A constant headwind
increases the angle of descent
increases the angle of the descent flight path
increases the descent distance over ground
increases the rate of descent
15.
The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM) are different for the zero flap case and take-off position flap case. What is the result of flap setting in take-off position compared to zero flap position?
Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM
Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
16.
An aircraft is flying at MACH 0.84 at FL 330. The static air temperature is -48°C and the headwind component 52 Kt. At 1338 UTC the controller requests the pilot to cross the meridian of 030W at 1500 UTC. Given the distance to go is 570 NM, the reduced MACH No. should be
0.80
0.78
0.72
0.76
17.
The second segment begins
when flap retraction begins.
when flaps are selected up
when landing gear is fully retracted
when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.
18.
A head wind will
shorten the time of climb
increase the climb flight path angle.
increase the angle of climb.
increase the rate of climb
19.
Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb?
Weight and drag only.
Weight and thrust only
Thrust and drag only
Weight, drag and thrust
20.
Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance ?
High temperature and high relative humidity
Low temperature and low relative humidity
High temperature and low relative humidity
Low temperature and high relative humidity
21.
An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide distance
decreases.
increases.
remains the same
may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane
22.
Which of the following statements is correct?If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases
the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases
the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases
the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
23.
During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called
Absolute ceiling
Maximum transfer ceiling
Service ceiling
Thrust ceiling
24.
During the certification flight testing of a twin engine turbojet aeroplane, the real take-off distances are equal to:- 1547 m with all engines running- 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged.The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is
1779 m.
1547 m.
1720 m.
1978 m.
25.
Field length is balanced when
calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG
all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.
one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.
take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance
26.
What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
It will decrease the take-off distance required
It will increase the take-off ground run
It will increase the take-off distance required
It will increase the accelerate stop distance.
27.
The speed V1 is defined as
take-off decision speed
take-off climb speed.
engine failure speed
speed for best angle of climb
28.
Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ?
At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane
At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter aeroplane.
There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes
At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier aeroplane
29.
Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
Headwind.
Low mass
Tailwind.
High mass.
30.
What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant ?
The ROC and the ROC speed are independant of the mass
The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed
The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.
The ROC speed increases with increasing mass
31.
If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.
the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained
the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.
the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained
32.
How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude?(No compressibility effects.)
The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude
Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude
The lift coefficient is independant of altitude.
33.
A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose
the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift / drag ratio.
the speed at the maximum lift
the long range speed
the speed corresponding to the minimum value of (lift / drag)^3/2.
34.
Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy
Both will increase
Vx will decrease and Vy will increase
Both will remain the same
Both will decrease
35.
In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range corresponds with
the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the induced drag curve.
the point of intersection of the parasite drag curve and the induced drag curve.
the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the drag curve.
the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the parasite drag curve.
36.
A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where
The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available
The clearway does not equal the stopway
The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance
37.
The critical engine inoperative
does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant
decreases the power required because of the lower drag caused by the windmilling engine
increases the power required because of the greater drag caused by the windmilling engine and the compensation for the yaw effect.
increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine
38.
Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway ?
V2
VMCG
V1
VMCA
39.
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass
a higher coefficient of drag is required.
requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed.
an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change.
an increase in airspeed and power is required.
40.
The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be
Smaller.
Not change
Larger.
Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting
41.
The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed
below which the take-off must be continued.
below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above which take-off must be continued.
at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur.
at which the take-off must be rejected
42.
Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)?
SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flow
SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow
43.
The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in
The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane
The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.
The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.
The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.
44.
Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct?
The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising altitude
The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may be taken into account.
An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down, because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines operating
45.
With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to
the critical Mach number
the minimum angle of descent
the maximum lift.
the minimum drag
46.
Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a change in the landing reference speed (VREF)
Increasing VREF
Increasing VREF and making a steeper glide path to avoid the use of spoilers
Lowering VREF
Keeping same VREF because wind has no influence on IAS
47.
Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during the calculation of the net flight path
The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.
A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement.
The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft.
48.
Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct ?
In principle a step climb is performed immediately after the aircraft has exceeded the optimum altitude.
A step climb provides better economy than a cruise climb.
Performing a step climb based on economy can be limited by the 1.3-g altitude.
A step climb may not be performed unless it is indicated in the filed flight plan.
49.
What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
The speed is unstable
The aeroplane will not stall
The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose
The altitude cannot be maintained
50.
Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives
a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range
a specific range which is about 99% of maximum specific range and higher cruise speed.
a specific range which is 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed.
an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range
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