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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for PERFORMANCE (1718-2089)
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field Length technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance calculations may allow
the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher V1
the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on V1
a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher V1
a greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower V1
2.
The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flaps angles on take-off, leads to the following values, with wind:Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°Runway limitation (kg): 66 000 69 500 71 5002nd segment slope limitation: 72 200 69 000 61 800Wind correction: Head wind:+120kg / kt Tail wind: -360kg / ktGiven that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be
69 000 kg / 15 deg
69 700 kg / 25 deg
72 200 kg / 5 deg
67 700 kg / 15 deg
3.
Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical?The speeds for
maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle
maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range
holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle
maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle
4.
If a flight is performed with a higher ""Cost Index"" at a given mass which of the following will occur?
A better maximum range.
A better long range
A higher cruise mach number
A lower cruise mach number.
5.
The length of a clearway may be included in
the take-off distance available
the take-off run available
the distance to reach V1
the accelerate-stop distance available
6.
How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ?
Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered
Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind
Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used
Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind
7.
Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin of 50 ft with respect to the ""net take off flight path"".
It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with the respect to the ""net take-off flight path"".
It cannot be lower than the corresponding climb limited take-off mass.
It should not be corrected for 30° bank turns in the take-off path.
8.
May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ?
Yes.
Only for landing.
Only for take-off
No.
9.
How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run ? The thrust
has no change during take-off and climb
decreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up
increases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.
varies with mass changes only.
10.
In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given by:(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)
T - W sin GAMMA = D
T + W sin GAMMA = D
T + D = - W sin GAMMA
T - D = W sin GAMMA
11.
Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives
a specific range which is about 99% of maximum specific range and higher cruise speed.
a specific range which is 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed.
an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range
a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range
12.
A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed
giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio
giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio
of greatest lift-to-drag ratio
for long-range cruise
13.
Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb whereas
VY and VX are decreased
VX is increased and VY is decreased
VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass
VY and VX are increased.
14.
The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit
decreases the maximum range
improves the maximum range
increases the stalling speed
improves the longitudinal stabiity
15.
When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA
the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass.
the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1.
the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet point.
the ""balanced take-off distance"" equals 115% of the ""all engine take-off distance"".
16.
The drift down requirements are based on
the landing mass limit at the alternate
the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed.
the maximum flight path gradient during the descent.
the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure.
17.
The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in
the accelerate-stop distance available
the take-off distance available.
the landing distance available
the take-off run available
18.
ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of
60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed
75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed
19.
You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ?
The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant Mach-climb
No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at ISA temperature TAS=460 kt)
The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly reduced as compared to constant IAS.
During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero.
20.
Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the ""Buffet Onset Boundary"" graph?
Aerodynamics.
Economy.
Theoretical ceiling.
Service ceiling
21.
How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude?(No compressibility effects.)
The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude
The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude
Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
The lift coefficient is independant of altitude.
22.
With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is
improved.
not affected
first improved and later reduced
reduced.
23.
At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming the engines specific consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by
5%
10%
7.5%
2.5%
24.
How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude?
Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases
Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases
Both decrease
Both increase
25.
The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is
a longer take-off run.
a higher V1
a shorter ground roll.
an increased acceleration.
26.
Assume:Aeroplane gross mass: 4750 kgCentre of gravity at station: 115.8What will be the new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg is moved from the station 30 to station 120?
Station 118.33
Station 117.69
Station 120.22
Station 118.25
27.
If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down procedure
fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached.
the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration.
fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down
the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the stall speed plus 10 kt
28.
V2 has to be equal to or higher than
1.1 VSO.
1.1 VMCA
1.15 VMCG.
1.15 VR
29.
With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about
3°
8%
3%
5°
30.
During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediatly above the correct value of V1?
V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
It may lead to over-rotation.
The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available
The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available
31.
Below the optimum cruise altitude
the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude
the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude
the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude
the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude
32.
The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engined or three-engined turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than
1.15 Vs1
1.2 Vs
1.15 Vs
1.3 Vs
33.
By what factor must the landing distance available (dry runway) for a turbojet powered aeroplane be multiplied to find the landing distance required? (planning phase for destination)
1.67
115/100
60/115
0.60
34.
Which of the following speeds can be limited by the 'maximum tyre speed'?
Lift-off groundspeed
Lift-off EAS
Lift-off TAS.
Lift-off IAS
35.
The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed
below which the take-off must be continued.
below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above which take-off must be continued.
at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur.
at which the take-off must be rejected
36.
The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the
obstacle clearance during descent to the net level-off altitude
engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs
weight during landing at the alternate
climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude
37.
The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
is dependent on the OAT.
is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation.
is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes.
is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling
38.
The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass
decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air density
increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed
is independent of altitude
increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density
39.
The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest at
VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration)
VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration)
VA (design manoeuvring speed)
VMO (maximum operating limit speed)
40.
Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a jet aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent out of the origin, the point of contact determines the speed of
minimum power
maximum specific range
critical angle of attack
maximum endurance
41.
The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as
VS.
VMC.
VS1.
VSO.
42.
An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide distance
remains the same
decreases.
may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane
increases.
43.
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when
obstacles are present close to the end of the runway
the runway is contaminated
the runway is wet.
it is dark.
44.
If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is correct ?
The VMCG will be lowered to V1.
The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.
The take-off is not permitted
The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.
45.
Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
V1, VMCG, VR, V2.
V1, VR, V2, VMCA.
V1, VR, VMCG, V2.
VMCG, V1, VR, V2.
46.
A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be
decreased
unchanged
very significantly decreased
increased
47.
""Maximum endurance""
is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction
can be flown in a steady climb only.
is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel consumption
can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight
48.
For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific range?
Decreases.
Does not change
Increases only if there is no wind.
Increases.
49.
A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where
The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
The clearway does not equal the stopway
The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance
The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available
50.
Uphill slope
decreases the take-off distance only.
increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.
decreases the accelerate stop distance only.
increases the allowed take-off mass
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