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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for PERFORMANCE (1718-2089)
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to
apply wheel brakes
deploy airbrakes or spoilers
reverse engine thrust.
reduce the engine thrust.
2.
The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by
selecting a lower VR.
selecting a lower V1
a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.
selecting a lower V2
3.
The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in
The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.
The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.
The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.
The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane
4.
At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?
35 ft above ground
1500 ft above field elevation
400 ft above field elevation.
When gear retraction is completed
5.
Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the take-off?
Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient temperature.
High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and short runway
Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature
High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature
6.
Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during the calculation of the net flight path
A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement.
The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.
The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft.
7.
If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained
the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained
the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.
the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.
8.
During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediatly above the correct value of V1?
The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available
V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available
It may lead to over-rotation.
9.
The take-off run is
1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative
the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface
10.
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance
an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance
a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance
an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance
11.
The take-off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon
only one engine operating
failure of critical engine
failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever gives the largest take off distance.
all engines operating.
12.
The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of
true airspeed to rate of climb
the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.
rate of climb to true airspeed
the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage
13.
Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following alternatives will decrease the take-off ground run?
Decreased take-off mass, increased density, increased flap setting.
Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air temperature, increased take-off mass.
Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure altitude, decreased flap setting
Decreased take-off mass, increased pressure altitude, increased temperature
14.
During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles
By selecting a lower flap setting.
By selecting a higher V2.
By selecting a lower V2.
By selecting a higher flap setting.
15.
The critical engine inoperative
does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant
decreases the power required because of the lower drag caused by the windmilling engine
increases the power required because of the greater drag caused by the windmilling engine and the compensation for the yaw effect.
increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine
16.
During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured takeoff runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off surface are:- 1747 m, all engines operating- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
2009 m.
1950 m.
2243 m.
2096 m.
17.
V1 has to be
equal to or higher than VMCG
equal to or higher than V2.
equal to or higher than VMCA.
higher than than VR
18.
The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is
a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an increase of the climb limited take-off mass.
a decrease of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass.
an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb limited take-off mass.
an increase of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass.
19.
The speed V2 is
the take-off safety speed.
the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.
that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure.
the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure.
20.
With all other things remaining unchanged and with T the outside static air temperature expressed in degrees K, the hourly fuel consumption of a turbojet powered aeroplane in a cruise flight with a constant Mach Number and zero headwind,is as follows
proportional to 1/T
proportional to 1/T²
independent from T
proportional to T
21.
At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine
increases slightly with increasing airspeed
is independent of the airspeed.
decreases slightly with increasing airspeed
increases with decreasing OAT.
22.
A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of
8.17 kg/NM.
10.7 kg/NM.
11.7 kg/NM.
14 kg/NM
23.
A higher outside air temperature
increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.
does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance
reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb
reduces the angle and the rate of climb
24.
With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is
lower than that of maximum lift to drag ratio.
equal to that corresponding to zero induced drag
equal to that of maximum lift to drag ratio.
equal to that maximum endurance.
25.
The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes.
is dependent on the OAT.
is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling
is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation.
26.
The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the
aircraft mass decreases
TAS decreases
glide angle increases
IAS increases
27.
By what factor must the landing distance available (dry runway) for a turbojet powered aeroplane be multiplied to find the landing distance required? (planning phase for destination)
1.67
0.60
60/115
115/100
28.
Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is correct?
Vs, Vx, Maximum range speed
Maximum endurance speed, Maximum range speed, Vx
Vs, Maximum range speed, Vx
Maximum endurance speed, Long range speed, Maximum range speed
29.
The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest at
VMO (maximum operating limit speed)
VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration)
VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration)
VA (design manoeuvring speed)
30.
A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct?
IAS increases and TAS increases.
IAS decreases and TAS decreases
IAS increases and TAS decreases
IAS decreases and TAS increases
31.
May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ?
Only for take-off
No.
Yes.
Only for landing.
32.
Long range cruise is selected as
the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative.
the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind
the speed for best economy.
specific range with tailwind.
33.
Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by
nosewheel steering only
primary aerodynamic control only
primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel
primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and differential braking
34.
The first segment of the take-off flight path ends
at completion of gear retraction
at reaching V2
at completion of flap retraction.
at 35 ft above the runway
35.
A constant headwind
increases the descent distance over ground
increases the angle of the descent flight path
increases the angle of descent
increases the rate of descent
36.
At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming the engines specific consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by
7.5%
5%
2.5%
10%
37.
An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio
increases / increases / decreases
decreases / constant / decreases
increases / increases / constant
increases / constant / increases
38.
Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties
The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maitain the same safety margins as for a dry runway
In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used
Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearanc
39.
With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct?
Screen height cannot be reduced
In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used.
When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the runway length
The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties
40.
Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct ?
In principle a step climb is performed immediately after the aircraft has exceeded the optimum altitude.
Performing a step climb based on economy can be limited by the 1.3-g altitude.
A step climb may not be performed unless it is indicated in the filed flight plan.
A step climb provides better economy than a cruise climb.
41.
Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?
the obstacle limited take-off mass
the climb limited take-off mass
the take-off run.
the field limited take-off mass
42.
In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range corresponds with
the point of intersection of the parasite drag curve and the induced drag curve.
the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the drag curve.
the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the induced drag curve.
the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the parasite drag curve.
43.
Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR.
When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines.
V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG.
The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.
44.
Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?
Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel
In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.
Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure
Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field length limited take-off mass.
45.
The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engined or three-engined turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than
1.2 Vs
1.3 Vs
1.15 Vs1
1.15 Vs
46.
Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the ""Buffet Onset Boundary"" graph?
Aerodynamics.
Theoretical ceiling.
Service ceiling
Economy.
47.
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have
an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
an increased landing distance and better go-around performance
a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
48.
If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway, the landing distance must be increased by
15%
20%
10%
5%
49.
Take-off run is defined as the
Distance from brake release to V2.
horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1.
distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.
50.
VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than
500 ft above the heighest obstacle
the heighest obstacle
1000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
2000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft
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