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Question Bank
Questions for INDIGO AIR LAW 1-513
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency?
2430 KHz
243.0 MHz
2.182 KHz
121.5 MHz
2.
The units providing Air Traffic Services are
Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.
Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.
Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower
3.
One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least
45° immediately after take-off.
25° immediately after take-off.
15° immediately after take-off.
30° immediately after take-off.
4.
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed
to all States Members of United Nations
the other Contracting States
United Nations
International Civile Aviation Organisation
5.
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than
50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
6.
The ""PAPI"" shall consist of
Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced
7.
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is
10 minutes.
2 minutes.
5 minutes
6 minutes.
8.
When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed
the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft
only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened
the persons not subjected to security control shall be identified
only the passengers are to be re screened
9.
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as
Airspace B
Airspace E
Airspace D
Airspace C
10.
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least
710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
11.
A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections.In section I the pilot fills in
a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time ,
weather noted
flight identification and weather noted
urgent messages
12.
In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required of him, contracting states
none of the answers are applicable
may require him to obtain any other identity document prior to the commencement of his flight
shall not require him to obtain any other identity document from their consultates or operators prior to initiate the flight
in certain cases any other identity may be required
13.
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
LLL
RCC
TTT
FFF
14.
""Code letter D"" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be
23 m.
25 m.
18 m.
15 m.
15.
In a standard holding pattern turns are made
in a direction depending on the entry ,
in a direction depending on the wind direction
to the left
to the right
16.
The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is
250 KT IAS
250 KT TAS
240 KT IAS
Not applicable
17.
A ""RNAV"" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same ""on track"" way-point. This minimum is
50 NM.
20 NM.
80 NM.
60 NM.
18.
Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in
has to be the same as the underlying flight information region
need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region
have to be as indicated by ICAO council
have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings
19.
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace below FL 290 is
1000 feet (300 m).
500 feet (150 m).
2000 feet (600 m).
2500 feet (750 m).
20.
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for
1 minute 15 seconds.
1 minute 30 seconds.
2 minutes.
1 minute.
21.
In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of
250 m
300 m.
200 m
150 m
22.
Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of
2 NM from touchdown
4 NM from touchdown
5 NM from touchdown
3 NM from touchdown
23.
Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)?
Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance
Estimated time over FIR boundary, endurance
Estimated elapse time (EET), endurance
Present position, estimated time of arrival (ETA).
24.
During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of
the airport controller
the radar controller
the pilot in command.
the approach controller
25.
During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is
125 kt
120 kt
150 kt
135 kt
26.
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that
taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ,
this aerodrome is using parallel runways
gliderflying is performed outside the landing area,
landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only,
27.
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
35 metres
40 metres
50 metres
45 metres
28.
Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will
Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
29.
Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said appropriate authority
Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting states
Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
Shall be specified to ICAO
30.
""ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC"" is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima. Whenever separation minima is not applied. The following flights are considered essential traffic one to each other
All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.
Only controlled IFR flights.
All IFR flights.
Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights.
31.
Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident.-aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue Centre-aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopterThe command of the situation is the responsibility of,
(1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3).
(1), then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of operations
(1) until the completion of operations.
(1), and then by mutual consent to (3).
32.
The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is
10 minutes
15 minutes or more
5 minutes or more.
20 minutes
33.
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
Mode B code 7600.
Mode A code 7600.
Mode A code 7500.
Mode A code 7700.
34.
A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means
The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
Continue circling and wait for further instructions
Give way to other aircraft in emergency
The airport is unsafe, do not land
35.
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of
20 NM
5 NM
25 NM
10 NM
36.
In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to
1 minute
3 minutes.
1 minute 30 seconds.
2 minutes
37.
Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as
Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
Decided on pilot's discretion.
the weather permits.
Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
38.
The documents for entry and departure of aircraft
has to be typewritten
has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques
are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink
are accepted at the contracting state discretion
39.
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is
30 m (98 ft)
50 m (164 ft)
90 m (295 ft)
120 m (384 ft)
40.
At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL
Within the transition layer
When passing the transition altitude
When passing the transition level
41.
Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a contracting state and has to stay in that contracting state until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the contracting state where the international airport is located shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival when
the passenger is to leave that state within 72 (seventy two) hours from the time of arrival of that passenger
the passenger is to leave that state within one (1) day from the day of his (her) arrival
the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from the day of his (her) arrival
the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) weeks from the day of his (her) arrival
42.
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for
1minute 30 seconds.
1 minute 15 seconds.
1 minute.
2 minutes.
43.
What does the abbreviation OIS mean?
Obstacle identification surface.
Obstacle identification slope.
Obstacle in surface
Obstruction in surface
44.
Which code shall be used on mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft?
Code 7700
Code 7500.
Code 7000
Code 7600
45.
An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if
the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight,
all mentioned answers are correc
the aircraft gets radar vectors ,
the pilot is following the published approach procedure
46.
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
Inform the ATC unit immediately
Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
47.
More than 12 hours
Any period
More than one week
More than 12 days
1998-11-30 0:00
48.
Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure
This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the next 48 hours.
This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform the operator of the delay caused by necessary repair.
Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are related only to insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the runway and taxiways.
49.
The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be
to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation
to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in commercial air transportation
to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation
none of the answers are correct
50.
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas?
MAP.
ENR.
AGA.
GEN.
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