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Question Bank
Questions for INDIGO AIR LAW 1-513
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of
air traffic coordination centres.
air traffic control and flight information centers
search and rescue coordination centres.
control centres only.
2.
Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system?
4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit
3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit
3.
The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done
automatically at the control zone boundary.
through a central control unit.
with the pilot's consent.
by agreement with the receiving unit.
4.
Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?
To the left.
First right and then to the left
Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
To the right.
5.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be
3.0 NM.
10.0 NM.
5.0 NM.
3.5 NM.
6.
Which ""code letter"" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?
Code letter ""C"".
Code letter ""E"".
Code letter ""B"".
Code letter ""D"".
7.
When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of
4 NM from the touchdow
3 NM from the touchdown
2 NM from the touchdown
1.5 NM from the touchdown
8.
A strayed aircraft is
An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost
only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track
an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established
9.
The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of
The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories.
25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed approach procedures.
25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks).
25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures.
10.
The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by
the state of registry only
the International Civil Aviation Organisation
the state of registry or common mark registering authority
the Internationnal Telecommunication Union
11.
Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by
the Montreal Convention
the Rome Convention
the Chicago Convention
the Warsaw Convention
12.
Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken
These measures are of the discretion of the contracting state
Correct
The state above question in incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft operator are to be informed.
The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any passenger is the subject of judicial proceedings.
13.
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
GEN.
COM.
RAC.
MET.
14.
If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction
until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
15.
An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light
outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable,
while taxiing, but not when it is being towed,
outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed,
on the ground when the engines are running
16.
A so called ""Visual Approach"" can be performed
as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more
during IFR and VFR flights in VMC,
during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure,
during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground
17.
Runway threshold lights shall be
Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
Fixed lights showing green or white colours.
Fixed lights green colours.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway
18.
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than
200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command
200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command
150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command
200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes
19.
Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?
Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller,
An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable ,
ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicule
The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft on the movement area,
20.
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
21.
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for
1 minute.
1 minute 15 seconds.
1minute 30 seconds.
2 minutes.
22.
Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when
The preceeding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The preceeding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
23.
The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is
YELLOW
ORANGE
GREEN
RED
24.
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.
At the point where the climb is established.
At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
At the missed approach point.
25.
Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?
Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance : required ,
Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance : required ,
Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance : not required ,
Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance : not required
26.
Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than
+/- 20 kt
+/- 8 kt.
+/- 15 kt.
+/- 10 kt.
27.
When are ATIS broadcasts updated ?
Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value
Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR , otherwise hourly
Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values
28.
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
LLL
TTT
FFF
RCC
29.
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refuelling facilities and limitations on refuelling services?
FAL.
AD.
GEN.
SAR.
30.
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be
10 minutes
15 minutes
3 minutes
5 minutes
31.
The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below
3.0 NM.
1.5 NM.
5.0 NM.
2.0 NM.
32.
The ""estimated total time"" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time
of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day
required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.
required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time).
33.
The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is
Annex 12
Annex 1
Annex 2
Annex 11
34.
You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence expires at 0920. What does it mean ?
If not airborne until 0920, a new clearence has to be issued
After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan
Do not take off before 0920
The take off clearence is expected at 0920
35.
The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated
to the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisation
to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union
to state of the operator
to the State of registry by the International Telecommunication Union
36.
What is meant when departure control instruct you to ""resume own navigation"" after you have been vectored to an airway?
Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
Radar Service is terminated
37.
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least
200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
150 hours of flight time
200 hours of flight time
150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
38.
If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall
Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations.
Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - Transmit being indicating important details required 2 times.
Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the termination of the flight to ATC.
Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.
39.
An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ?
1st freedom
4th freedom
3rd freedom
2nd freedom
40.
A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should
Read back should be unsolicited.
Read back those parts containing level assignments, vectors or any part requiring verification.
Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation
Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and transponder codes
41.
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to
Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290
Fly the emergency triangle
Declare an emergency
As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure
42.
A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is
Medium
Poor
Medium/poor
Good
43.
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
5 minutes
2 minutes
3 minutes
10 minutes
44.
Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will
Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
45.
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to
7500.
7700.
7000.
7600.
46.
Aerodrome traffic is
All traffic on the manoeuvring area.
All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
47.
A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted
200 m (660 ft)
300 m (1000 ft)
100 m (330 ft)
150 m (500 ft)
48.
VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are
8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ,
No minima, VFR flights are not permitted
5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ,
8 km visibility, and clear of clouds ,
49.
Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said appropriate authority
Shall be specified to ICAO
Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting states
50.
The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed
2 NM from the threshold on final approach.
5 NM from the threshold on final approach
4 NM from the threshold on final approach.
3 NM from the threshold on final approach.
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