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Question Bank
Questions for INDIGO AIR LAW 1-513
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
A radio communications, ""Distress"" differs from ""Urgency"" because in the first case
The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.
The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly
The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.
2.
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode ""A""
7500
7600
7 700
7000
3.
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be
Flashing green.
Fixed white.
Fixed green.
Flashing white.
4.
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ?
VIP (Head of state) aircraft
Emergency aircraft
Military aircraft
Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention
5.
Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated
as prescribed by the state
at least every half an hour independently of any significant change
immediately a significant change occurs
as prescribed by the meteorological office
6.
What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach ?
± 10KT
± 15 KT
± 20KT
± 25 KT
7.
An AIRAC is
A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.
An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.
A package which consists of the following elements : AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries
A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
8.
To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is
18 and 60 years
21 and 59 years
17 and 59 years
16 and 60 years
9.
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than
200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command
200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes
200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command
150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command
10.
When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined
Only for categories C, D and E aircraft
For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them.
For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.
Only for categories A and B aircraft.
11.
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels
250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195
250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100
12.
When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than
15 degrees.
30 degrees
25 degrees.
20 degrees
13.
The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by
ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned
Each contracting state
ECAC
ICAO
14.
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the
Final missed approach track.
FAF.
MAP.
Landing runway.
15.
Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done
only at transition altitude.
at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.
only at transition level
at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.
16.
Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as
Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
the weather permits.
Decided on pilot's discretion.
Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
17.
""Code letter D"" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be
15 m.
23 m.
18 m.
25 m.
18.
Turning departures provide track guidance within
15 Km
5 Km
20 Km
10 Km
19.
ASHTAM
1999-06-08 0:00
VULTAM
NAVTAM
GVATAM
20.
You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL
With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating
With a CPL
With an ATPL
With a PPL plus flight instructor rating
21.
An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is
land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing
continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.
adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations
22.
Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than
+/- 8 kt.
+/- 15 kt.
+/- 10 kt.
+/- 20 kt
23.
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that
taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ,
gliderflying is performed outside the landing area,
this aerodrome is using parallel runways
landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only,
24.
For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command
5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot
5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
25.
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.
At the missed approach point.
At the point where the climb is established.
At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
26.
At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid
1998-11-27 0:00
At the diiscretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of basic licence
At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year
At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.
27.
The documents for entry and departure of aircraft
has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques
are accepted at the contracting state discretion
has to be typewritten
are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink
28.
Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of
3 NM from touchdown
2 NM from touchdown
5 NM from touchdown
4 NM from touchdown
29.
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of
Chicago
Warsaw
Montreal
The Hague
30.
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals
Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist
Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
Crossing arms extended above his head.
Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground
31.
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than
200 ft
100 ft
250 ft
150 ft
32.
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is
annex 8
annex 9
annex 15
annex 6
33.
The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is
15 minutes or more
20 minutes
5 minutes or more.
10 minutes
34.
Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a contracting state and has to stay in that contracting state until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the contracting state where the international airport is located shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival when
the passenger is to leave that state within one (1) day from the day of his (her) arrival
the passenger is to leave that state within 72 (seventy two) hours from the time of arrival of that passenger
the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) weeks from the day of his (her) arrival
the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from the day of his (her) arrival
35.
Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower
The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone.
The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.
The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower.
36.
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
45 metres
35 metres
40 metres
50 metres
37.
If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form
write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of theairport
write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of theairport
write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of theairport
write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport
38.
The light shown by an ""Aerodrome Identification Beacon"" at a land aerodrome shall be
Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.
Green colour identification given by Morse Code.
White colour identification given by Morse Code.
White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.
39.
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the
FAF.
MAP.
IF.
FAP.
40.
Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes
A, B, C, D, E, F and G
F and G only
F only
C, D, E, F, and G
41.
""Instrument runways"" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures
Precision approach runways in general.
Precision approach runways category I, II and III.
Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
42.
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is
10 KT
4 KT
8 KT
5 KT
43.
If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ?
You land
Descend
Descend for landing
Let down
44.
An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively
40 hours and 15 hours
50 hours and 10 hours
40 hours and 10 hours
50 hours and 15 hours
45.
A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least
50 minutes prior to leave the blocks
60 minutes prior to departure.
10 minutes prior to departure.
30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
46.
Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of
Only NOTAM's and Circulars.
Only AIP and NOTAM's.
AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC
Integrated Aeronautical Information Package
47.
Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service
may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
need to file a flight plan
Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service.
Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified.
48.
Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initation of an accident investigation?
The government of the state in which the accident took place
The aircraft manufacturer
The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the aircraft is registered
Operators of the same aircraft type
49.
The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be
at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres
at least 75 centimetres
at least 60 centimetres
at least 50 centimetres
50.
Which does ATC Term ""Radar contact"" signify?
ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
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