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Question Bank
Questions for SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 15
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
Precision approach procedure is classed nonstandard if
The rate of descend exceeds 1000 feet per minute.
The glide path angle exceeds 3.5°.
Both A and B are correct.
2.
Rules on Pilots logbook are given in ___________ of Aircraft rules 1937
Rule 65
Rule 67A
Rule 24B
3.
Runway friction coefficient 0.20 means estimated surface friction
Good
Medium to Good
Poor
4.
Aircraft is facing severe turbulence, pilot should maintain?
Constant maneuvering speed (Va).
Constant altitude.
Constant maneuvering speed (Va) and altitude.
5.
Turbulence causing slight erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times is classified as?
Moderate
Severe
Light
6.
In AIP, Enroute 3.1, ATS routes are described as
Conventional Navigation Routes.
RNP routes
Lower ATS Routes.
7.
Runway Condition Code (RWYCC) is reported for
Each one third portion of the operational runway to indicate the presence of water, snow, ice, slush or frost.
The runway to indicate unusable portion of the operational runway.
For non-operational runway to denote it's status.
8.
Identify the correct Taxiway designator
Z 2
X 1
I 2
9.
In radiotelephony 3500 is spoken as?
TREE TOU SAND FIFE HUNDRED.
TREE FIFE ZERO ZERO.
This is a vague number.
10.
ADC validity for non-schedule domestic flights is
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 3 hours of EOBT.
(+) 60 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 45 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
11.
Which convention is considered to be a fore runner of Chicago Convention, 1944?
Paris Convention, 1919
Ibero-American Convention, 1926
Warsaw Convention, 1929
12.
What are the various stages of hypoxia?
Disturbance Stage- oxygen saturation between 70%-79% and Critical Stage- oxygen saturation between 60%-69%.
Indifferent Stage- oxygen saturation between 90%-98% and Compensatory State- oxygen saturation between 80%-89%.
Both A and B are correct.
13.
Aircraft is on final approach. The pilot suffers from hyperventilation. Correct actions by the pilot are
Breathe oxygen at 100%, the symptoms will improve markedly after three or four breaths.
Take deep breaths and continue descend to land.
Control the depth of breathing. Consciously slow the rate of breathing to 10-12 breaths.
14.
What's the specific gravity of slush?
0.8 up to 1.1
1.0 up 1.3
0.5 up to 0.8
15.
Wildlife hazard at aerodromes is caused due to the presence of
Birds and animals
Animals
Wild animals
16.
Priority order in the ITU Radio Regulations and in Annex 10 for current communication systems is: 1. Distress calls, distress messages, and distress traffic (emergency messages). 2. Communications relating to direction finding (to modify the course). 3. Urgency messages. 4. Flight regularity messages. 5. Meteorological messages (meteorological information). 6. Flight safety messages (movement and control)
1, 3, 6, 5, 2, 4
1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 6
1, 3, 2, 6, 5, 4.
17.
In AIP, Enroute 3.2, ATS routes are described as
Air Navigation Routes
Upper ATS Routes
Non RNP routes
18.
Aircraft in approaching to land at initial approach what is the obstacles clearance height?
At least 984'.
At least 500'.
At least 300'.
19.
Flight safety messages comprise movement and control messages (e.g., FPL, DLA, CNL, DEP, ARR, OLDI messages, etc.), messages by the operator that are of immediate concern to aircraft and some meteorological messages (SIGMET, special air-reports, AIMET, volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisories. The priority indicator for such messages is
FF
GG
SS
20.
FMS/RNAV
Cannot be used for conventional procedures
Can be used for conventional procedures only is AFM permits.
Can be used for conventional procedures if permitted by DGCA
21.
Standing water on runway is notified through a
AIRRAC
Snowtam
Notam W
22.
Turbulence causing slight erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude is classified as?
Moderate
Light.
Severe.
23.
Does hypoxia cause hyperventilation or only pressure breathing?
Both hyperventilation and pressure breathing.
Only pressure breathing.
Only hyperventilation.
24.
A glide path angle can be reduced to below 3° for
Operational reasons like military aircraft with excess thrust.
Both A and B are correct.
Obstacle clearance on approach.
25.
Priority indicator for meteorological messages (excluding SIGMET, special air-reports, AIRMET, volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisories) is
KK.
GG.
FF
26.
SATVOICE is
Not a valid Long-Range Communication System (LRCS) as yet.
Another name for SATCOM.
A valid Long- Range Communication System (LRCS).
27.
ICAO is
Not associated with UNO at all.
A part and parcel of UNO as a non-specialized agency.
An independent and autonomous agency, with a constituency status in the UNO.
28.
Main stages of hypoxia are: 1. The Indifferent Stage (sea level to 10000'). 2. The Incapacitation Stage (may occur at any level above 10000'). 3. The Compensatory Stage (10000' to 15000'). 4. The Disturbance Stage (15000' to 20000') 5. The Critical Stage (beyond 20000')
1, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 4, 5
2, 3, 4, 5
29.
In the event of a proposed delay of _________ or more to the departure time for a flight plan when a flight plan has been previously filed, the Pilot-in-Command or his representative will be required to notify ATC of the revised ETD
60 minutes
30 minutes
15 minutes
30.
While cruising at 18000' you experience drowsiness, poor Judgement, garbled speech and loss of muscle coordination. This may be due to the ___________ of hypoxia
Critical Stage.
Compensatory Stage.
Disturbance Stage.
31.
Purpose of VSS is to?
Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (including a circling approach).
Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling approach).
Visual Segment Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling approach).
32.
What is rule 25 in Aircraft rules 1937?
Aircraft in distress
Dangerous flying
Smoking in aircraft
33.
How long are Cognitive functions affected by stress?
In short term as well as long term.
In l.ng term only,
In short term only.
34.
After rain Controller reports that runway is WET. The indicates to a pilot that
The runway is closed due to water logging and pilot should divert.
There is no standing water with a depth of more than 3 cms on one third of the runway.
The surface is soaked but there is no standing water.
35.
Flight Plan is to be filed at least?
One hour before TOBT
Three hours before EOBT
One hour before EOBT
36.
For ILS/MLS/GLS the minimum, maximum and optimum glide path angles are
2.5°, 4.5° (3° for CAT III operations), 3°.
2.5°, 4° (3° for CAT II and III operations), 3°.
2.5°, 3.5° (3° for CAT II and III operations), 3°.
37.
Priority indicator SS is used for
Distress messages sent by aircraft reporting that they are threatened by imminent danger and all other messages relative to immediate assistance.
Urgency messages sent by aircraft reporting that they are threatened by imminent danger and all other messages relative to immediate assistance.
Urgency messages concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicles, or of some person on board or within sight.
38.
For Distress messages (SS), Urgency messages (DD), Flight safety messages (FF), Meteorological messages (GG) and Aeronautical administrative messages (KK) the order of priority for the message transmission is
1. SS 2.DD 3. FF 4. KK 5. GG.
1. SS, D 2. GG 3. FF 4. KK.
1. SS 2. DD, FF 3. GG, KK.
39.
OCA/OCH is measured with respect to
MSL.
Aiming point.
Threshold or ARP.
40.
Turbulence causing aircraft to violently toss about and it is practically impossible to control, may also cause structural damage is classified as?
Moderate
Severe
Light
41.
Friction Coefficient due to snow -- in how many segments is runway divided based on friction level?
1/4
1/3
1/2
42.
The phrase 'Radar contact' means?
A/C is under positive control.
No more position report is required.
The aircraft has been identified on radar.
43.
Minima for operations at aerodrome by operator can be lower than the set minima?
If approved by the state of registry.
If approved by the state of operator.
If approved by ICAO for international flights.
44.
Priority indicator for messages concerning NOTAMs and SNOWTAMs is
GG.
KK.
DD.
45.
ADC Validity Period is
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 45 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
(+) 60 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 30 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
46.
A glide path angle of more than 3° should be allowed only when
There is no other option available to provide obstacle clearance on the approach path.
CAT II and III operations take place in extremely bad weather conditions.
Large wide body aircraft operate from the runway.
47.
If you see red and white lights of the aircraft ahead, it means
The aircraft is flying near parallel to you
The aircraft is moving from right to left
The aircraft is moving from left to right
48.
Aerodrome Operations Vehicles are considered to be
Flight Operation Hazards
A possible source of FOD
FOD
49.
ATC clears an aircraft for immediate take off. Actions by the pilot are?
Taxi immediately to runway and commence take off without stopping.
Take off immediately after all mandatory checks.
Take off with 30 seconds of clearance.
50.
Runway Condition Report (RCR) is prepared by ______________ for use by _________________
Flight Crew, DGCA
Aerodrome Operator, Flight Crew
Flight Crew, Aircraft Operator
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