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Question Bank
Questions for SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 15
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
Priority indicator SS is used for
Urgency messages sent by aircraft reporting that they are threatened by imminent danger and all other messages relative to immediate assistance.
Distress messages sent by aircraft reporting that they are threatened by imminent danger and all other messages relative to immediate assistance.
Urgency messages concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicles, or of some person on board or within sight.
2.
ADC Validity Period is
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 45 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 30 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
(+) 60 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL
3.
In radiotelephony 3500 is spoken as?
TREE FIFE ZERO ZERO.
TREE TOU SAND FIFE HUNDRED.
This is a vague number.
4.
What is rule 25 in Aircraft rules 1937?
Dangerous flying
Aircraft in distress
Smoking in aircraft
5.
Standing water on runway is notified through a
AIRRAC
Notam W
Snowtam
6.
FMS/RNAV
Can be used for conventional procedures only is AFM permits.
Can be used for conventional procedures if permitted by DGCA
Cannot be used for conventional procedures
7.
Minima for operations at aerodrome by operator can be lower than the set minima?
If approved by the state of registry.
If approved by the state of operator.
If approved by ICAO for international flights.
8.
ADC validity for non-schedule domestic flights is
(+) 60 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 3 hours of EOBT.
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 45 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
9.
Main stages of hypoxia are: 1. The Indifferent Stage (sea level to 10000'). 2. The Incapacitation Stage (may occur at any level above 10000'). 3. The Compensatory Stage (10000' to 15000'). 4. The Disturbance Stage (15000' to 20000') 5. The Critical Stage (beyond 20000')
1, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 4, 5
2, 3, 4, 5
10.
Which convention is considered to be a fore runner of Chicago Convention, 1944?
Warsaw Convention, 1929
Paris Convention, 1919
Ibero-American Convention, 1926
11.
Identify the correct Taxiway designator
I 2
X 1
Z 2
12.
In AIP, Enroute 3.1, ATS routes are described as
Lower ATS Routes.
RNP routes
Conventional Navigation Routes.
13.
In the event of a proposed delay of _________ or more to the departure time for a flight plan when a flight plan has been previously filed, the Pilot-in-Command or his representative will be required to notify ATC of the revised ETD
30 minutes
60 minutes
15 minutes
14.
How long are Cognitive functions affected by stress?
In short term only.
In short term as well as long term.
In l.ng term only,
15.
For Distress messages (SS), Urgency messages (DD), Flight safety messages (FF), Meteorological messages (GG) and Aeronautical administrative messages (KK) the order of priority for the message transmission is
1. SS 2.DD 3. FF 4. KK 5. GG.
1. SS 2. DD, FF 3. GG, KK.
1. SS, D 2. GG 3. FF 4. KK.
16.
OCA/OCH is measured with respect to
Aiming point.
Threshold or ARP.
MSL.
17.
Runway friction coefficient 0.20 means estimated surface friction
Medium to Good
Good
Poor
18.
What's the specific gravity of slush?
1.0 up 1.3
0.5 up to 0.8
0.8 up to 1.1
19.
Flight safety messages comprise movement and control messages (e.g., FPL, DLA, CNL, DEP, ARR, OLDI messages, etc.), messages by the operator that are of immediate concern to aircraft and some meteorological messages (SIGMET, special air-reports, AIMET, volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisories. The priority indicator for such messages is
GG
SS
FF
20.
Aircraft in approaching to land at initial approach what is the obstacles clearance height?
At least 984'.
At least 500'.
At least 300'.
21.
In AIP, Enroute 3.2, ATS routes are described as
Air Navigation Routes
Non RNP routes
Upper ATS Routes
22.
Flight Plan is to be filed at least?
Three hours before EOBT
One hour before EOBT
One hour before TOBT
23.
Turbulence causing slight erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude is classified as?
Light.
Severe.
Moderate
24.
Priority indicator for meteorological messages (excluding SIGMET, special air-reports, AIRMET, volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisories) is
FF
KK.
GG.
25.
Precision approach procedure is classed nonstandard if
Both A and B are correct.
The rate of descend exceeds 1000 feet per minute.
The glide path angle exceeds 3.5°.
26.
While cruising at 18000' you experience drowsiness, poor Judgement, garbled speech and loss of muscle coordination. This may be due to the ___________ of hypoxia
Disturbance Stage.
Compensatory Stage.
Critical Stage.
27.
Priority indicator for messages concerning NOTAMs and SNOWTAMs is
GG.
KK.
DD.
28.
After rain Controller reports that runway is WET. The indicates to a pilot that
The runway is closed due to water logging and pilot should divert.
There is no standing water with a depth of more than 3 cms on one third of the runway.
The surface is soaked but there is no standing water.
29.
Aircraft is facing severe turbulence, pilot should maintain?
Constant altitude.
Constant maneuvering speed (Va).
Constant maneuvering speed (Va) and altitude.
30.
A glide path angle can be reduced to below 3° for
Obstacle clearance on approach.
Both A and B are correct.
Operational reasons like military aircraft with excess thrust.
31.
The phrase 'Radar contact' means?
No more position report is required.
The aircraft has been identified on radar.
A/C is under positive control.
32.
Turbulence causing aircraft to violently toss about and it is practically impossible to control, may also cause structural damage is classified as?
Severe
Light
Moderate
33.
SATVOICE is
A valid Long- Range Communication System (LRCS).
Not a valid Long-Range Communication System (LRCS) as yet.
Another name for SATCOM.
34.
A glide path angle of more than 3° should be allowed only when
CAT II and III operations take place in extremely bad weather conditions.
Large wide body aircraft operate from the runway.
There is no other option available to provide obstacle clearance on the approach path.
35.
Runway Condition Code (RWYCC) is reported for
The runway to indicate unusable portion of the operational runway.
For non-operational runway to denote it's status.
Each one third portion of the operational runway to indicate the presence of water, snow, ice, slush or frost.
36.
Priority order in the ITU Radio Regulations and in Annex 10 for current communication systems is: 1. Distress calls, distress messages, and distress traffic (emergency messages). 2. Communications relating to direction finding (to modify the course). 3. Urgency messages. 4. Flight regularity messages. 5. Meteorological messages (meteorological information). 6. Flight safety messages (movement and control)
1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 6
1, 3, 2, 6, 5, 4.
1, 3, 6, 5, 2, 4
37.
What are the various stages of hypoxia?
Disturbance Stage- oxygen saturation between 70%-79% and Critical Stage- oxygen saturation between 60%-69%.
Both A and B are correct.
Indifferent Stage- oxygen saturation between 90%-98% and Compensatory State- oxygen saturation between 80%-89%.
38.
Purpose of VSS is to?
Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (including a circling approach).
Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling approach).
Visual Segment Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling approach).
39.
ATC clears an aircraft for immediate take off. Actions by the pilot are?
Take off immediately after all mandatory checks.
Take off with 30 seconds of clearance.
Taxi immediately to runway and commence take off without stopping.
40.
Aircraft is on final approach. The pilot suffers from hyperventilation. Correct actions by the pilot are
Breathe oxygen at 100%, the symptoms will improve markedly after three or four breaths.
Control the depth of breathing. Consciously slow the rate of breathing to 10-12 breaths.
Take deep breaths and continue descend to land.
41.
Runway Condition Report (RCR) is prepared by ______________ for use by _________________
Flight Crew, Aircraft Operator
Aerodrome Operator, Flight Crew
Flight Crew, DGCA
42.
For ILS/MLS/GLS the minimum, maximum and optimum glide path angles are
2.5°, 4.5° (3° for CAT III operations), 3°.
2.5°, 4° (3° for CAT II and III operations), 3°.
2.5°, 3.5° (3° for CAT II and III operations), 3°.
43.
Wildlife hazard at aerodromes is caused due to the presence of
Birds and animals
Animals
Wild animals
44.
If you see red and white lights of the aircraft ahead, it means
The aircraft is flying near parallel to you
The aircraft is moving from left to right
The aircraft is moving from right to left
45.
Rules on Pilots logbook are given in ___________ of Aircraft rules 1937
Rule 65
Rule 67A
Rule 24B
46.
Turbulence causing slight erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times is classified as?
Moderate
Severe
Light
47.
Aerodrome Operations Vehicles are considered to be
A possible source of FOD
Flight Operation Hazards
FOD
48.
Does hypoxia cause hyperventilation or only pressure breathing?
Only hyperventilation.
Only pressure breathing.
Both hyperventilation and pressure breathing.
49.
Friction Coefficient due to snow -- in how many segments is runway divided based on friction level?
1/4
1/2
1/3
50.
ICAO is
Not associated with UNO at all.
An independent and autonomous agency, with a constituency status in the UNO.
A part and parcel of UNO as a non-specialized agency.
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