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Question Bank
Questions for SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 15
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
A glide path angle of more than 3° should be allowed only when
Large wide body aircraft operate from the runway.
CAT II and III operations take place in extremely bad weather conditions.
There is no other option available to provide obstacle clearance on the approach path.
2.
How long are Cognitive functions affected by stress?
In l.ng term only,
In short term as well as long term.
In short term only.
3.
Aerodrome Operations Vehicles are considered to be
Flight Operation Hazards
A possible source of FOD
FOD
4.
Aircraft in approaching to land at initial approach what is the obstacles clearance height?
At least 300'.
At least 500'.
At least 984'.
5.
ATC clears an aircraft for immediate take off. Actions by the pilot are?
Taxi immediately to runway and commence take off without stopping.
Take off with 30 seconds of clearance.
Take off immediately after all mandatory checks.
6.
Purpose of VSS is to?
Visual Segment Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling approach).
Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling approach).
Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (including a circling approach).
7.
While cruising at 18000' you experience drowsiness, poor Judgement, garbled speech and loss of muscle coordination. This may be due to the ___________ of hypoxia
Disturbance Stage.
Critical Stage.
Compensatory Stage.
8.
In AIP, Enroute 3.1, ATS routes are described as
RNP routes
Lower ATS Routes.
Conventional Navigation Routes.
9.
OCA/OCH is measured with respect to
MSL.
Threshold or ARP.
Aiming point.
10.
Main stages of hypoxia are: 1. The Indifferent Stage (sea level to 10000'). 2. The Incapacitation Stage (may occur at any level above 10000'). 3. The Compensatory Stage (10000' to 15000'). 4. The Disturbance Stage (15000' to 20000') 5. The Critical Stage (beyond 20000')
1, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 4, 5
2, 3, 4, 5
11.
Wildlife hazard at aerodromes is caused due to the presence of
Animals
Wild animals
Birds and animals
12.
FMS/RNAV
Can be used for conventional procedures if permitted by DGCA
Cannot be used for conventional procedures
Can be used for conventional procedures only is AFM permits.
13.
Does hypoxia cause hyperventilation or only pressure breathing?
Only hyperventilation.
Both hyperventilation and pressure breathing.
Only pressure breathing.
14.
Flight Plan is to be filed at least?
Three hours before EOBT
One hour before TOBT
One hour before EOBT
15.
Which convention is considered to be a fore runner of Chicago Convention, 1944?
Ibero-American Convention, 1926
Warsaw Convention, 1929
Paris Convention, 1919
16.
ADC Validity Period is
(+) 60 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 45 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 30 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
17.
Minima for operations at aerodrome by operator can be lower than the set minima?
If approved by ICAO for international flights.
If approved by the state of registry.
If approved by the state of operator.
18.
If you see red and white lights of the aircraft ahead, it means
The aircraft is flying near parallel to you
The aircraft is moving from left to right
The aircraft is moving from right to left
19.
In AIP, Enroute 3.2, ATS routes are described as
Air Navigation Routes
Non RNP routes
Upper ATS Routes
20.
Standing water on runway is notified through a
AIRRAC
Snowtam
Notam W
21.
Runway Condition Report (RCR) is prepared by ______________ for use by _________________
Flight Crew, DGCA
Aerodrome Operator, Flight Crew
Flight Crew, Aircraft Operator
22.
Flight safety messages comprise movement and control messages (e.g., FPL, DLA, CNL, DEP, ARR, OLDI messages, etc.), messages by the operator that are of immediate concern to aircraft and some meteorological messages (SIGMET, special air-reports, AIMET, volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisories. The priority indicator for such messages is
GG
FF
SS
23.
ICAO is
Not associated with UNO at all.
An independent and autonomous agency, with a constituency status in the UNO.
A part and parcel of UNO as a non-specialized agency.
24.
For ILS/MLS/GLS the minimum, maximum and optimum glide path angles are
2.5°, 4.5° (3° for CAT III operations), 3°.
2.5°, 4° (3° for CAT II and III operations), 3°.
2.5°, 3.5° (3° for CAT II and III operations), 3°.
25.
Turbulence causing slight erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude is classified as?
Light.
Severe.
Moderate
26.
Turbulence causing slight erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times is classified as?
Moderate
Light
Severe
27.
Friction Coefficient due to snow -- in how many segments is runway divided based on friction level?
1/2
1/4
1/3
28.
In the event of a proposed delay of _________ or more to the departure time for a flight plan when a flight plan has been previously filed, the Pilot-in-Command or his representative will be required to notify ATC of the revised ETD
15 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes
29.
Priority indicator SS is used for
Urgency messages concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicles, or of some person on board or within sight.
Urgency messages sent by aircraft reporting that they are threatened by imminent danger and all other messages relative to immediate assistance.
Distress messages sent by aircraft reporting that they are threatened by imminent danger and all other messages relative to immediate assistance.
30.
In radiotelephony 3500 is spoken as?
TREE TOU SAND FIFE HUNDRED.
TREE FIFE ZERO ZERO.
This is a vague number.
31.
Priority indicator for meteorological messages (excluding SIGMET, special air-reports, AIRMET, volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisories) is
GG.
KK.
FF
32.
Precision approach procedure is classed nonstandard if
Both A and B are correct.
The glide path angle exceeds 3.5°.
The rate of descend exceeds 1000 feet per minute.
33.
Rules on Pilots logbook are given in ___________ of Aircraft rules 1937
Rule 67A
Rule 65
Rule 24B
34.
Turbulence causing aircraft to violently toss about and it is practically impossible to control, may also cause structural damage is classified as?
Severe
Light
Moderate
35.
A glide path angle can be reduced to below 3° for
Operational reasons like military aircraft with excess thrust.
Obstacle clearance on approach.
Both A and B are correct.
36.
SATVOICE is
Another name for SATCOM.
A valid Long- Range Communication System (LRCS).
Not a valid Long-Range Communication System (LRCS) as yet.
37.
What are the various stages of hypoxia?
Disturbance Stage- oxygen saturation between 70%-79% and Critical Stage- oxygen saturation between 60%-69%.
Both A and B are correct.
Indifferent Stage- oxygen saturation between 90%-98% and Compensatory State- oxygen saturation between 80%-89%.
38.
Priority indicator for messages concerning NOTAMs and SNOWTAMs is
KK.
DD.
GG.
39.
What is rule 25 in Aircraft rules 1937?
Aircraft in distress
Smoking in aircraft
Dangerous flying
40.
Runway friction coefficient 0.20 means estimated surface friction
Poor
Medium to Good
Good
41.
After rain Controller reports that runway is WET. The indicates to a pilot that
The runway is closed due to water logging and pilot should divert.
There is no standing water with a depth of more than 3 cms on one third of the runway.
The surface is soaked but there is no standing water.
42.
Aircraft is on final approach. The pilot suffers from hyperventilation. Correct actions by the pilot are
Take deep breaths and continue descend to land.
Control the depth of breathing. Consciously slow the rate of breathing to 10-12 breaths.
Breathe oxygen at 100%, the symptoms will improve markedly after three or four breaths.
43.
Priority order in the ITU Radio Regulations and in Annex 10 for current communication systems is: 1. Distress calls, distress messages, and distress traffic (emergency messages). 2. Communications relating to direction finding (to modify the course). 3. Urgency messages. 4. Flight regularity messages. 5. Meteorological messages (meteorological information). 6. Flight safety messages (movement and control)
1, 3, 6, 5, 2, 4
1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 6
1, 3, 2, 6, 5, 4.
44.
For Distress messages (SS), Urgency messages (DD), Flight safety messages (FF), Meteorological messages (GG) and Aeronautical administrative messages (KK) the order of priority for the message transmission is
1. SS 2.DD 3. FF 4. KK 5. GG.
1. SS 2. DD, FF 3. GG, KK.
1. SS, D 2. GG 3. FF 4. KK.
45.
Runway Condition Code (RWYCC) is reported for
Each one third portion of the operational runway to indicate the presence of water, snow, ice, slush or frost.
For non-operational runway to denote it's status.
The runway to indicate unusable portion of the operational runway.
46.
The phrase 'Radar contact' means?
A/C is under positive control.
No more position report is required.
The aircraft has been identified on radar.
47.
What's the specific gravity of slush?
1.0 up 1.3
0.5 up to 0.8
0.8 up to 1.1
48.
ADC validity for non-schedule domestic flights is
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 45 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 3 hours of EOBT.
(+) 60 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
49.
Aircraft is facing severe turbulence, pilot should maintain?
Constant altitude.
Constant maneuvering speed (Va) and altitude.
Constant maneuvering speed (Va).
50.
Identify the correct Taxiway designator
Z 2
I 2
X 1
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