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Question Bank
Questions for SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 14
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
What is the purpose of a Crew Member's Certificate (CMC)?
To provide identification of aircrew.
To allow flight crew to be exempted from customs, health and immigration formalities when disembarking.
To permit access to the air side of an aerodrome for aircrew.
2.
Operational Threats outside the control of light crew are
Adverse weather, Terrain, Airport conditions, Heavy traffic/TCAS events, Unfamiliar airports etc.
Aircraft malfunctions, Automation events etc.
Time pressure, Irregular operations, Flight diversions, Missed approaches etc.
3.
The west end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered
28.
09.
10 if the magnetic heading online up is 097 degrees.
4.
Ac 'A' reports 27 NMs inbound of DPN VOR at F 150. Ac 'B' reports 39 NMs inbound of DPN VOR on same track & level. Which statements is true if A is 10 kts faster than ‘B’
'B' will be advised to decrease speed by 5 kts to achieve longitudinal separation.
'A' will be advised to increase speed by 10 kts to achieve longitudinal separation.
Longitudinal Separation exists.
5.
When instructed by ATC to hold short of Runway pilot should stop
So that no part of the A/C extends beyond hold line.
So that the Fit Deck Area of A/c is even with the hold line.
With nose gear on hold line.
6.
If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you refer?
QFE.
QNE.
QNH.
7.
An AIRAC is
A notices distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
A package which consists of the following elements: AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries.
An acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.
8.
For a VFR flight in Airspace F and G in India 'At and below 900 m (3000 ft,) AMSL, or 300 m (1000 ft.) above terrain, whichever is the higher'
Flight visibility reduced to not less than 3000 m may be permitted for helicopters.
Flight visibility not less than 5000 m is required for fixed wing aircraft.
Flight visibility reduced to not less than 3000 m may be permitted for all aircraft.
9.
Identify Runway Lighting on center line lighting system
Amber light from 3000' to 1000 ft then Alternative Red and which light to the end.
Alternative Red and white light from 3000'ft to 1000 ft and then Red light to the end.
Alternative Red and white light from 3000'ft to end of runway.
10.
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, and offense against penal law
Can not authorize the assistance of other crew members.
May deliver such person to the competent authorities.
Can not request for the assistance of passengers to restrain such persons.
11.
While flying on a magnetic track of 157 degrees the aircraft on VFR plan will select the following levels
75
70.
85.
12.
During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point
The term Decimal can be omitted if no chance of misunderstandings exists.
The term Decimal must always be transmitted.
The term Decimal must be spoken only if followed by three digits.
13.
The phrase used by ATC to instruct you to listen out on a frequency is
Select Frequency.
Pay attention.
Monitor.
14.
You observe thunderstorms without hail on our route. On radio telephony you shall report the phenomenon as
Thunderstorms, hail not observed.
Thunderstorms, no hail.
Thunderstorms.
15.
Which part of the ear could be affected due to air pressure changes during climb and/or descent?
The semicircular canal and inner ear.
The eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum).
The cochlea.
16.
Night Duty is any Duty Period encroaching upon any portion of the time period between ____________ in the time zone to which the crew is acclimatized
2200 hrs. and 0600 hrs.
0000 hrs. and 0500 hrs.
2300 hrs. and 0500 hrs.
17.
In a severe case of hypoxia
Only blood pressure and heart functions are maintained.
Only brain and heart functions are maintained.
Only blood pressure and brain functions are maintained.
18.
State aircraft includes
Military aircraft.
Air India Aircraft.
All aircraft registered in India.
19.
During an extensive gym work out, one experiences
Hyperventilation due to excessive CO2 in blood.
Hypoxia due to lack of oxygen.
Angina due to increased blood circulation.
20.
Ac 'A' at F 90 is reciprocal to 'B' at F 80 in class 'A' airspace. 'A' can descend through 'B's level
Immediately after estimated time of crossing.
After 5 mins of crossing each other.
'A' can descend remaining in VMC & maintaining own separation.
21.
According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offense on board the aircraft?
The Convention of Tokyo.
The Convention of Warsaw.
The Convention of Rome.
22.
Where ADS-B is used for Identification, aircraft may be identified by the following procedure
Direct recognition of the aircraft identification in an ADS-B label.
Recognition of an assigned discrete code, the setting of which has been verified.
Asking him to squawk assigned mode A code C.
23.
For landing minima considerations, the following values out of the multiple RVR values are taken into account
RVR at the middle of the runway.
RVR at the beginning of the runway.
RVR at the end of the runway.
24.
The crew member certificate (CMC) shall be accepted by each contracting state for identification purposes
Together with a valid passport and flight crew license.
None of the above.
Together with a valid flight crew license.
25.
A person dies of Typhus; his body can be brought to India if
Packed in a wooden box.
Cannot be brought.
Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell of zinc, joints sealed, shell enclosed in a teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc lined box, filed with saw dust impregnated with carbolic power.
26.
High intensity obstacle lights should be
Flashing red.
Fixed orange.
Flashing white.
27.
If a pilot in the air sees a 2.5 meter symbol "X" on the ground. What does it mean?
Aircraft not permitted to proceed beyond this point.
Flying is prohibited over this area.
A survivor requires medical assistance.
28.
If you fly Into Severe Turbulence which flight condition should you intend to maintain
Constant Altitude and Constant Speed.
Level fit Altitude.
Constant Airspeed.
29.
Series of red and green projection fired at an interval of 10 sees means
Exercise caution while landing.
Do not land for the time being.
Keep away from danger area.
30.
Navigation light are to be displayed by all aircraft in flight
From 30 mins after sunset till 30 mins before sunrise.
At all time.
From sunset to sunrise.
31.
Which of the following system describes an abbreviated precision approach path indicator
A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp units normally located on the left side of the runway unless it is physically impracticable to do so.
Ten light units arranged on one side of the runway in the form of a single wing bar of four light units, with a bisecting longitudinal line of six lights.
Twenty light units symmetrically disposed about the runway center line in the form of two wing bars of four light units each, with bisecting longitudinal lines of six lights.
32.
Identify Taxi way lights associated with center line lighting system
Alternate green & white light covering from center line of Runway to the center line of taxiway.
Blue light covering from the center line of R/Way to the center line of taxiway.
Alternative Blue and White light covering from the center line of the Taxiway.
33.
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
XXX.
DDD.
RWY.
34.
Aircraft meets with an accident on runway, its wreckage can be removed
For removing dead body of a dog.
Can be removed only after investigating authority's permission.
Can be removed only after DGCA permission.
35.
Aerodrome Operations Vehicles are considered to be
Flight Operation Hazards.
A possible source of FOD.
FOD.
36.
Nationality marks used in India are
Letters VT, VU and U
Letters VT only
Letters AT to AW
37.
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above 10000ft MSL are
1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically from clouds; 8km visibility.
1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000ft vertically from clouds; 8km visibility.
1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000ft vertically from clouds; 5km visibility.
38.
The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published
Only in NOTAM.
Only in AIP.
In NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.
39.
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be
2.5NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
2.0NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.
3.0NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
40.
STAR is a
Designated IFR arrival route.
Designated VFR arrival route.
Pole Star used to ascertain the true North.
41.
The convention on offenses and certain acts committed on board aircraft is
The convention of Rome.
The convention of Chicago.
The convention of Tokyo.
42.
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than
60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
43.
When a controlled flight deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed in case
The TAS varies by plus or minus 5% or more of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
The estimated time is in error by more than 3 minutes.
The TAS varies by plus or minus 10 knots or more of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
44.
Who is responsible for providing search and rescue facilities over land?
The State of Registry of the aircraft.
The State in whose territory the crash occurred.
The State from which the aircraft took off.
45.
An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must
Follow the rules of the Air of the State it is over flying.
Follow the rules of the Air of the State of Registration.
Follow the rules of the Air of the State of the Operator.
46.
Traffic Advisories can be issued against any
Transponder-equipped aircraft that has altitude-reporting capability.
Transponder-equipped aircraft that responds to the ICAO Mode C interrogations.
Aircraft even when it is not transponder-equipped.
47.
Pilots will feel more confident intervening (when they think that a colleague has missed something) if they know that
It is common for everyone to miss obvious things, and the colleague also knows this.
The colleague has acted irresponsibly and needs to be reprimanded to be more careful.
No intervention is required if the colleague is a senior captain and must be doing the right thing.
48.
A series of red flashes sent to an aircraft in flight means
Airfield is unsafe, do not land.
Notwithstanding any other instructions do not land at the moment.
Return to the airfield and land.
49.
Which of the following is defined as "The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way, if provided"
Landing distance available.
Take off distance available.
Accelerate stop distance available.
50.
ILS Category I, DH equal to or greater than 75 m (250 ft) is a
3D-Type B precision approach.
3D-Type A non-precision approach.
3D-Type A precision approach.
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