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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 13
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
An urgency call content is to be as follows
PAN PAN PAN, aircraft identification, the intention of the person in command, heading, height, position.
PAN PAN PAN (on the frequency in use), name of station addressed, the nature of the urgency condition, the intention of the person in command.
PAN PAN PAN (on 121,5 MHz). present position, heading aircraft, identification, the intention of the person in command, the identification of the station being called.
2.
The frequency used for the transmission of a "MAYDAY" call shall be
The distress frequency 121.5 MHz.
The frequency currently in use.
Any frequency at pilot's discretion.
3.
To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to the controller
Runway free.
Runway vacated.
Clear of runway.
4.
Area Control Centers issue clearances for the purpose of
Achieving separation between IFR flights.
Providing flight information Service.
Achieving separation between controlled flights.
5.
With regard to flight time limitations, "flight time" means
The time between an aircraft starting to move and coming to a complete stop plus one and a half hours.
The total time from when an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until it comes to rest after the flight.
The time between take-off and landing.
6.
A VER flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified as
B and C.
B.
B, C, D and E.
7.
Experiencing stress depends on
The individual interpretation of the situation.
The individual's state of tiredness.
The fragility of individuals to certain types of stimulation.
8.
ATS routes have now been re-designated from Lower ATS Routes to _________ and from Upper ATS routes to __________.
Standard Navigation Routes; RNP Routes.
Domestic Navigation Routes; Regional Navigation Routes.
Conventional Navigation Routes; Air Navigation Routes.
9.
CRM training has under mentioned clear aims in terms of specific skills to develop for the purpose of
Error avoidance, threat management, system management and undesired aircraft state management.
Error avoidance, threat management, error management and environment management.
Error avoidance, threat management, error management and undesired aircraft state management.
10.
The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in the
CAR OPS.
Flight manual.
Operation manual.
11.
A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. The assistance includes
Permission to land on an isolated airfield.
Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land.
Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to overfly avoiding populated areas.
12.
When operating under Special VFR clearance, the responsibility for remaining clear of obstacles on the grounds rests with
The aircraft commander.
Operator.
Air traffic control.
13.
The objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the
Prevention of accidents or incidents and to help the manufacturers in design.
Prevention of accidents or incidents and to help the judges.
Prevention of accidents or incidents.
14.
An "Automatic Terminal Information Service " provides
Routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous and repetitive broadcast.
Weather reports relating to a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight information region (FIR).
Information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of aircraft operation.
15.
Cold clammy skin is indicative of
Hyperventilating
Hypoxia.
Decompression sickness.
16.
What is understood by air-sickness?
A sensory conflict within the vestibular system accompanied by nausea, vomiting and fear.
An illness caused within the Central Nervous system accompanied by nausea, vomiting and fever.
An illness caused by an infection of the middle ear accompanied by nausea, vomiting and hearing loss.
17.
You are entering a FIR where SSR is used from an area where SSR is not used. What would you squawk?
Standby
A/2000+C.
A/1234+C.
18.
In which section of the AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
RAC.
MET
GEN.
19.
An aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station on the designated frequency. What action is required by the pilot
Attempt to establish contact with the station on an alternative frequency.
Land at the nearest airport without an ATC unit.
Return to the airport of departure.
20.
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas?
GEN
ENR.
AGA.
21.
What is the radio telephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar arrivals
Arrival.
Approach.
Approach Radar.
22.
The International Civil Organization (ICAO) was established by the international convention of
Chicago
Montreal
Warsaw
23.
You are flying in Mumbai FIR when you intercept a distress call. You record the message and tell Mumbai FIC. The radio operator at Mumbai tells you to standby. What should you consider doing whilst awaiting instructions?
Proceed to the position given in the distress message.
Descend to low level and carry out a surface search for ships.
Make a general call on 121.5 asking other airplanes to assist.
24.
The fire-extinguisher types which may be used on Class B fires are: 1. H2O. 2. CO2. 3. Dry-chemical. 4. Halogen. The combination of correct statements is
2, 3, 4.
1, 2, 3, 4.
3, 4.
25.
A person who smokes on packet of cigarettes a day will reduce his capacity to transport oxygen effectively by
5% to 8%.
0.5% to 2%.
12% to 18%.
26.
Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in ight and destroying or damaging any air navigation facility punishable?
The Montreal convention.
The Tokyo convention.
The Warsaw convention.
27.
What does ONE mean?
What should I set on the sub scale of my altimeter so that the instrument would indicate its elevation if my aircraft were on the ground at your station?
What indication will my altimeter give on landing at ______ (place) at _______ hours, my sub-scale being set to 1013.2 millibars (29.92 inches)?
What should I set on the sub scale of my altimeter so that the instrument would indicate its height above the reference elevation being used?
28.
Flying from Bengaluru to Moscow you will have a lay-over of 4 days. What time measure is relevant for your circadian rhythm on the 3rd day?
LT (Local Time).
UTC (Universal Coordinated Time).
ZT (Zonal Time).
29.
Whenever a distress signal and or message or equivalent transmission is intercepted by the PIC of an aircraft, he shall
If possible, take a bearing on the transmission.
Record the position of the craft in distress if given.
Record the position of the craft in distress if given and if possible, take a bearing on the transmission.
30.
The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to
7000kg.
14000kg.
20000kg.
31.
Motor programs are
Stored routines that enable patterns of behavior to be executed without continuous conscious control.
Rules that enable us to deal with preconceived situations.
Stored routines that enable patterns of behavior to be executed only under continuous conscious control.
32.
During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of
The approach controller.
The pilot in command.
The radar controller.
33.
King air VT-ABC receives the following instruction: "V-BC climb straight ahead until 2500 feet before turning right, wind 270 degrees 6 knots, cleared for takeoff". What is the correct read back
Straight ahead, at 2500 feet right turn, cleared for take-off, V-BC.
Straight ahead, 2500 feet right turn, wind west 6 knots, cleared for take-off, V-BC.
Wilco, cleared for take-off, V-BC.
34.
The most common specific cause of pilot-induced accidents is
Hypoxia.
Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT)
Poor pre-flight planning.
35.
A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than normal may feel he is at a greater height than to actually is. To compensate he may fly a
Higher than normal approach with the tendency to overshoot.
Flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot.
Compensatory glide path and stall out.
36.
An aircraft is flying under IFR in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is
Continue flight on to destination, complying with last received clearances in the fled flight plan.
Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing.
Descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations.
37.
Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless
They operate a transponder with Mode C.
They operate within controlled airspace.
Requested by ATC.
38.
Runway center line lights shall be fixed lights showing variable _________ from the threshold to the point 900m from the runway end, alternate ______ and variable ________ from 900m to 300m from from runway end, and _______ from 300m to the runway end
Green, white and yellow, red.
White, yellow and white, red.
White, red and white, red.
39.
What is gradient for departure runway?
2.5%
2.8%
3.3%
40.
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?
The state.
The pilot in command.
The operator.
41.
While approaching the outer marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a "microburst". You should expect to encounter
Wind shear (vertical and horizontal).
Super cooled water.
Convection motion of air mass.
42.
You will use a Halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1. Solids (fabric, plastic.) 2. Liquids (alcohol, gasoline.) 3. Gas 4. Metals (aluminum, magnesium.)
1, 2, 4.
2, 3, 4.
1, 2, 3.
43.
Scanning at night should be performed by
Scanning with one eye open.
Concentrated fixation on an object (image must fall on the fovea centralis).
Slight eye movement to the side of the object.
44.
Which of the following is not a mandatory instruction sign
Direction sign.
Taxi-holding position sign.
Road holding position sign.
45.
The different emergency phases (in correct order) are
ALERT, INCERFA, and DISTRESFA.
INCERFA, ALERFA and DETRESFA.
ALERT, DISTRESS and RESCUE.
46.
If during flight a pilot is in a mental condition of "optimum arousal" he/she will be
In a confused mental state.
Unprepared to handle a difficult situation.
Prepared best to cope with a difficult task.
47.
The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be at least
50 centimeters.
Between 40 and 50 centimeters.
60 centimeters.
48.
Hyper vigilance is
Necessary to allow fight crew to concentrate on instruments while landing.
In its most acute forms, an extremely agitated state of panic or near panic.
Necessary in critical stages of a fight.
49.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be
5.0NM.
10.0NM.
3.5NM.
50.
An applicant for a Commercial Pilot License aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than
150 hours of flight time and100 hours as pilot-in-command.
200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot-in-command.
200 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot-in-command.
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