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Questions for SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 10

Answer the following questions

1.

The approach categories of aircraft are based upon

2.

You are approaching an aerodrome to land and call the approach controller at 10 nm from the endge of the ATZ. Your flight conditions are VMC and you are flying VFR. When would you expect to be advised to set the aerodrome QNH?

3.

Performance loss may be present up to ____ minutes after awaking from a short sleep (nap)

4.

If Air India provides an aeroplane and complete crew for lease to Indian AIr Force (a wet lease-out situation), who is the operator of the aeroplane?

5.

A red square panel with a yellow strip along each diagonal, displayed in the signals area of an aerodrome indicates

6.

Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Informaton Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of

7.

Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right way?

8.

An aircraft flying above the sea between 4500ft MSL and 9000ft MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least

9.

Which of the following statements is true?

10.

What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic vision)?

11.

When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if

12.

The cabin pressure in airline operation is

13.

If the age of a CPL holder flying a single pilot helicopter for charters is more than 40 years the validity of medical is for ______

14.

The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely to occur

15.

The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is

16.

Which of the following provides the basis of all perceptions?

17.

What is meant by the tem Incapacitation?

18.

What is the wavelength and waveband of a radio aid that uses a frequency of 19 cm?

19.

The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3050m (10000ft) AMSL, is

20.

Survival equipment, dropped by SAR and containing food and water will be packed in containers and indicated by streamers of following color

21.

An aircraft is in emergency when

22.

Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be switched on

23.

Hypoxia will afffect night vision

24.

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot

25.

If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received?

26.

Vertical or horizontal separation shall be provided between

27.

While flying at night another aircraft is at 060 degress relative bearing from your aeroplane. In that case you are safe if you see his

28.

When does the flight time end?

29.

Anb aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome (no EAT received)

30.

One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression sickness emerging after a decompression in airline operation

31.

An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C dervied level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by

32.

All aeroplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 2700 kg. for which the individual certificate of airwothiness is first issued on or after 1 January 2022 shall be equipped with FDRs/CVRs capable of retaining the information recorded during at least the last ____ hours of their operation

33.

An Aircraft shall report "long final" when it is at ____ from the approach end of the runway

34.

If contact is lost with the runway on the downwind leg of a circling maneuver, what actions should be taken?

35.

The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP if a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard

36.

What optimizes crew co-operation?1. Sharing and common task 2. confidence in each other's capability 3. Precise definition of functions associated with each crew members role

37.

An international flight from India can take off

38.

In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when

39.

What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Air India 5345?

40.

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classifed as

41.

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as

42.

The purpose of cabin pressurization system is to

43.

For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as

44.

When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example

45.

"A defined rectangular area on the gorund at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is the definition for

46.

Prodcuts or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by

47.

Pulse rate is influenced by the following factors: 1. Adrenalin 2. Cortisol 3. Physical excercise

48.

Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor blades

49.

In a holing pattern all turns are to be amde at a

50.

Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of