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Question Bank
Questions for SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 10
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
The approach categories of aircraft are based upon
1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at minimum certified landing mass
1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at maximum certified landing mass
1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at minium cetrified landing mass
2.
You are approaching an aerodrome to land and call the approach controller at 10 nm from the endge of the ATZ. Your flight conditions are VMC and you are flying VFR. When would you expect to be advised to set the aerodrome QNH?
When describing below the transition altitude
On initial contact the app controller will pass QNH and tell you what altitude to fly at
On clearance to enter the traffic pattern established for a visual join to land
3.
Performance loss may be present up to ____ minutes after awaking from a short sleep (nap)
10
15
20
4.
If Air India provides an aeroplane and complete crew for lease to Indian AIr Force (a wet lease-out situation), who is the operator of the aeroplane?
Air India provided they carry cilvil load only
Air India - because it is their crew flying the aeroplane
Indian Air Force - provided they absolve Air India of any responsibility in the manner in which the aeroplane is operated
5.
A red square panel with a yellow strip along each diagonal, displayed in the signals area of an aerodrome indicates
Aerodrome is unfit for aircraft movements, and landing are prohibited
Excercise special care when landing
Land on paved surface only
6.
Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Informaton Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of
Only AIP and NOTAM's
AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC
Integrated Aeronautical Information Package
7.
Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right way?
Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction which "B" is approaching
Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left
Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right
8.
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4500ft MSL and 9000ft MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least
1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility
Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8 km visibility
1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility
9.
Which of the following statements is true?
People are capable of living without stress
Stressors accumulate thus increasing the likelihood to exhausion
Stressors are independent from each other
10.
What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic vision)?
Wait at least 60 minutes to night-adapt before he takes off
Select meals with high contents of vitamin B and C
Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash blindness
11.
When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
The state of registry considers that the danmge sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
The state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy
The state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
12.
The cabin pressure in airline operation is
Nomally not exceeding 6000 to 8000feet
Nomally not exceeding 2000 to 3000feet
Nomally not exceeding 4000 to 5000feet
13.
If the age of a CPL holder flying a single pilot helicopter for charters is more than 40 years the validity of medical is for ______
12 months if he is not carrying VIPs
6 months
12 months
14.
The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely to occur
With colds and slow ascents
With colds and rapid descents
With colds and fast climbs
15.
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is
2000ft (600m)
500ft (150m)
1000ft (300m)
16.
Which of the following provides the basis of all perceptions?
Sensory information that we expect to receive is not easily provided
We perceive most of the information reaching our senses at any moment
Perception involves the conversion of the sensory information received into a meaningful structure
17.
What is meant by the tem Incapacitation?
The gradual or sudden loss of a crew member's ability to function
When situational awareness of the crew is too low
The effect of gastrointestinal upset
18.
What is the wavelength and waveband of a radio aid that uses a frequency of 19 cm?
1.579 Ghz UHF
15.79 Hz ELF
1.579 Mhz VHF
19.
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3050m (10000ft) AMSL, is
250kt IAS
250kt TAS
Not applicable
20.
Survival equipment, dropped by SAR and containing food and water will be packed in containers and indicated by streamers of following color
Blue
Yellow
Green
21.
An aircraft is in emergency when
It is forced to land
It is threatened by grave danger
It is threatended by grave danger and requires immediate assistance
22.
Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be switched on
As soon as the engines are running
Betwen SS and SR or any other period specified by the approrpiate authority
All aircraft operating in the movement area
23.
Hypoxia will afffect night vision
Less than day vision
At 5000 ft
And cause the autokinetic phenomena
24.
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot
Shall continously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC
Shall continously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions
Shall continously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace
25.
If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received?
Can not
Can not comply
Unable to comply
26.
Vertical or horizontal separation shall be provided between
All flights in class B, C and D airspace
All flights in class A and B airspaces
All flights in class A, B and C airspaces
27.
While flying at night another aircraft is at 060 degress relative bearing from your aeroplane. In that case you are safe if you see his
Green and red navigation lights
Red navigation light
Green navigation light
28.
When does the flight time end?
At engine shut down when the aeroplane has stopped in the parking bay
At touchdown
When the aeroplane first stops after landing to disembark passengers
29.
Anb aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome (no EAT received)
5 minutes after the last expected approach time acknowledged
At, or as close to, the ETa resulting from the current flight plan
After 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged
30.
One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression sickness emerging after a decompression in airline operation
Are neuroplogical damages to the CNS
Is a shock
Are the bends
31.
An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C dervied level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by
300ft
+/-300ft
More than 300ft
32.
All aeroplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 2700 kg. for which the individual certificate of airwothiness is first issued on or after 1 January 2022 shall be equipped with FDRs/CVRs capable of retaining the information recorded during at least the last ____ hours of their operation
25/2
25/25
25/12
33.
An Aircraft shall report "long final" when it is at ____ from the approach end of the runway
1NMs
4NMs
8NMs
34.
If contact is lost with the runway on the downwind leg of a circling maneuver, what actions should be taken?
If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact
Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling altitude
Initiate a missed approach
35.
The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP if a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard
It should give 60 days' notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard
It should give 45 days' notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard
It shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard
36.
What optimizes crew co-operation?1. Sharing and common task 2. confidence in each other's capability 3. Precise definition of functions associated with each crew members role
2, 3
1, 2
1, 2, 3
37.
An international flight from India can take off
From any custom aerodrome only
From any aerodrome in India
From any major aerodrome in India
38.
In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when
Below the approach slope
Above the approach slope
On or close to the approach slope
39.
What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Air India 5345?
Air India 45
Air India 345
No abbreviated form
40.
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classifed as
Airspace C
Airspace E
Airspace B
41.
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as
Airspace G
Airspace C
Airspace E
42.
The purpose of cabin pressurization system is to
Essentially allow for fatigue recovery and the reconstitution of circadian circle
Kepp in swing with the rhythm of the arrival country for as long as possible and maintain regular living patterns of departure country
Allow the crew and passengers to move about freely in a comfortable environment, unencumbered by oxygen masks or other life support equipment and reduce gastrointestinal- trapped gas-, middle ear- and sinus- problems.
43.
For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as
The boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion
Boarding prior to all passengers
The boarding has to be done at the sate discretion
44.
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
RCC
TTT
LLL
45.
"A defined rectangular area on the gorund at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is the definition for
Runway strip
Stop way
Runway end safety area
46.
Prodcuts or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by
The directive of the Controller of Explosives
The IATA document entitled "Regulations governing the transporation of dangerous goods by air"
The ICAO document entitled "Tecnical Instructions for the safe transportation of dangerous goods by air
47.
Pulse rate is influenced by the following factors: 1. Adrenalin 2. Cortisol 3. Physical excercise
2, 3 are correct, 1 is false
1, 2, 3 are correct
1, 3 are correct, 2 is false
48.
Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor blades
Can cause spatial disorientation and/or nausea, when looked at for a longer period of time
Should be avoided, because it may destroy the optical nerve
Can be neglected
49.
In a holing pattern all turns are to be amde at a
Rate of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank
Rate of 3°/sec
Rate of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank
50.
Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of
Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaing an orderly flow of air traffic
PReventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the maneuvering area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
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