Vayudoot Aviation

1.
What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic vision)?

Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash blindness

Wait at least 60 minutes to night-adapt before he takes off

Select meals with high contents of vitamin B and C

2.
Vertical or horizontal separation shall be provided between

All flights in class A, B and C airspaces

All flights in class B, C and D airspace

All flights in class A and B airspaces

3.
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classifed as

Airspace C

Airspace B

Airspace E

4.
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is

2000ft (600m)

500ft (150m)

1000ft (300m)

5.
What optimizes crew co-operation?1. Sharing and common task 2. confidence in each other's capability 3. Precise definition of functions associated with each crew members role

1, 2

2, 3

1, 2, 3

6.
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example

LLL

RCC

TTT

7.
The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely to occur

With colds and rapid descents

With colds and slow ascents

With colds and fast climbs

8.
Which of the following provides the basis of all perceptions?

We perceive most of the information reaching our senses at any moment

Sensory information that we expect to receive is not easily provided

Perception involves the conversion of the sensory information received into a meaningful structure

9.
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as

Airspace G

Airspace C

Airspace E

10.
An Aircraft shall report "long final" when it is at ____ from the approach end of the runway

4NMs

8NMs

1NMs

11.
All aeroplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 2700 kg. for which the individual certificate of airwothiness is first issued on or after 1 January 2022 shall be equipped with FDRs/CVRs capable of retaining the information recorded during at least the last ____ hours of their operation

25/12

25/2

25/25

12.
The approach categories of aircraft are based upon

1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at minimum certified landing mass

1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at maximum certified landing mass

1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at minium cetrified landing mass

13.
Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be switched on

All aircraft operating in the movement area

Betwen SS and SR or any other period specified by the approrpiate authority

As soon as the engines are running

14.
Survival equipment, dropped by SAR and containing food and water will be packed in containers and indicated by streamers of following color

Blue

Yellow

Green

15.
You are approaching an aerodrome to land and call the approach controller at 10 nm from the endge of the ATZ. Your flight conditions are VMC and you are flying VFR. When would you expect to be advised to set the aerodrome QNH?

On initial contact the app controller will pass QNH and tell you what altitude to fly at

On clearance to enter the traffic pattern established for a visual join to land

When describing below the transition altitude

16.
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4500ft MSL and 9000ft MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least

1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility

1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility

Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8 km visibility

17.
If Air India provides an aeroplane and complete crew for lease to Indian AIr Force (a wet lease-out situation), who is the operator of the aeroplane?

Air India provided they carry cilvil load only

Indian Air Force - provided they absolve Air India of any responsibility in the manner in which the aeroplane is operated

Air India - because it is their crew flying the aeroplane

18.
In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when

Below the approach slope

Above the approach slope

On or close to the approach slope

19.
Prodcuts or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by

The directive of the Controller of Explosives

The ICAO document entitled "Tecnical Instructions for the safe transportation of dangerous goods by air

The IATA document entitled "Regulations governing the transporation of dangerous goods by air"

20.
If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received?

Can not comply

Can not

Unable to comply

21.
When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if

The state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy

The state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy

The state of registry considers that the danmge sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy

22.
Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right way?

Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left

Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction which "B" is approaching

Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right

23.
An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C dervied level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by

+/-300ft

300ft

More than 300ft

24.
Anb aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome (no EAT received)

After 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged

At, or as close to, the ETa resulting from the current flight plan

5 minutes after the last expected approach time acknowledged

25.
When does the flight time end?

When the aeroplane first stops after landing to disembark passengers

At engine shut down when the aeroplane has stopped in the parking bay

At touchdown

26.
Pulse rate is influenced by the following factors: 1. Adrenalin 2. Cortisol 3. Physical excercise

2, 3 are correct, 1 is false

1, 2, 3 are correct

1, 3 are correct, 2 is false

27.
Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Informaton Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of

Integrated Aeronautical Information Package

Only AIP and NOTAM's

AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC

28.
What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Air India 5345?

No abbreviated form

Air India 45

Air India 345

29.
A red square panel with a yellow strip along each diagonal, displayed in the signals area of an aerodrome indicates

Aerodrome is unfit for aircraft movements, and landing are prohibited

Land on paved surface only

Excercise special care when landing

30.
Hypoxia will afffect night vision

At 5000 ft

And cause the autokinetic phenomena

Less than day vision

31.
The purpose of cabin pressurization system is to

Allow the crew and passengers to move about freely in a comfortable environment, unencumbered by oxygen masks or other life support equipment and reduce gastrointestinal- trapped gas-, middle ear- and sinus- problems.

Kepp in swing with the rhythm of the arrival country for as long as possible and maintain regular living patterns of departure country

Essentially allow for fatigue recovery and the reconstitution of circadian circle

32.
The cabin pressure in airline operation is

Nomally not exceeding 4000 to 5000feet

Nomally not exceeding 6000 to 8000feet

Nomally not exceeding 2000 to 3000feet

33.
An international flight from India can take off

From any aerodrome in India

From any custom aerodrome only

From any major aerodrome in India

34.
If the age of a CPL holder flying a single pilot helicopter for charters is more than 40 years the validity of medical is for ______

12 months

6 months

12 months if he is not carrying VIPs

35.
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3050m (10000ft) AMSL, is

Not applicable

250kt TAS

250kt IAS

36.
Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of

Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaing an orderly flow of air traffic

Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the maneuvering area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

PReventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

37.
In a holing pattern all turns are to be amde at a

Rate of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank

Rate of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank

Rate of 3°/sec

38.
What is the wavelength and waveband of a radio aid that uses a frequency of 19 cm?

15.79 Hz ELF

1.579 Ghz UHF

1.579 Mhz VHF

39.
Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor blades

Can cause spatial disorientation and/or nausea, when looked at for a longer period of time

Should be avoided, because it may destroy the optical nerve

Can be neglected

40.
Which of the following statements is true?

Stressors accumulate thus increasing the likelihood to exhausion

People are capable of living without stress

Stressors are independent from each other

41.
An aircraft is in emergency when

It is threatened by grave danger

It is threatended by grave danger and requires immediate assistance

It is forced to land

42.
While flying at night another aircraft is at 060 degress relative bearing from your aeroplane. In that case you are safe if you see his

Green and red navigation lights

Red navigation light

Green navigation light

43.
One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression sickness emerging after a decompression in airline operation

Are neuroplogical damages to the CNS

Are the bends

Is a shock

44.
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot

Shall continously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace

Shall continously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC

Shall continously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions

45.
The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP if a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard

It should give 45 days' notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard

It should give 60 days' notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard

It shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard

46.
Performance loss may be present up to ____ minutes after awaking from a short sleep (nap)

10

15

20

47.
What is meant by the tem Incapacitation?

The effect of gastrointestinal upset

When situational awareness of the crew is too low

The gradual or sudden loss of a crew member's ability to function

48.
For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as

The boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion

Boarding prior to all passengers

The boarding has to be done at the sate discretion

49.
"A defined rectangular area on the gorund at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is the definition for

Stop way

Runway strip

Runway end safety area

50.
If contact is lost with the runway on the downwind leg of a circling maneuver, what actions should be taken?

Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling altitude

Initiate a missed approach

If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact

Question Bank

Questions for SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 10

What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic vision)?

Vertical or horizontal separation shall be provided between

The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is

What optimizes crew co-operation?1. Sharing and common task 2. confidence in each other's capability 3. Precise definition of functions associated with each crew members role

When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example

The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely to occur

Which of the following provides the basis of all perceptions?

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as

An Aircraft shall report "long final" when it is at ____ from the approach end of the runway

The approach categories of aircraft are based upon

Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be switched on

Survival equipment, dropped by SAR and containing food and water will be packed in containers and indicated by streamers of following color

You are approaching an aerodrome to land and call the approach controller at 10 nm from the endge of the ATZ. Your flight conditions are VMC and you are flying VFR. When would you expect to be advised to set the aerodrome QNH?

An aircraft flying above the sea between 4500ft MSL and 9000ft MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least

If Air India provides an aeroplane and complete crew for lease to Indian AIr Force (a wet lease-out situation), who is the operator of the aeroplane?

In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when

Prodcuts or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by

If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received?

When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if

Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right way?

An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C dervied level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by

Anb aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome (no EAT received)

When does the flight time end?

Pulse rate is influenced by the following factors: 1. Adrenalin 2. Cortisol 3. Physical excercise

Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Informaton Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of

What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Air India 5345?

A red square panel with a yellow strip along each diagonal, displayed in the signals area of an aerodrome indicates

Hypoxia will afffect night vision

The purpose of cabin pressurization system is to

The cabin pressure in airline operation is

An international flight from India can take off

If the age of a CPL holder flying a single pilot helicopter for charters is more than 40 years the validity of medical is for ______

The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3050m (10000ft) AMSL, is

Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of

In a holing pattern all turns are to be amde at a

What is the wavelength and waveband of a radio aid that uses a frequency of 19 cm?

Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor blades

Which of the following statements is true?

An aircraft is in emergency when

While flying at night another aircraft is at 060 degress relative bearing from your aeroplane. In that case you are safe if you see his

One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression sickness emerging after a decompression in airline operation

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot

The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP if a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard

Performance loss may be present up to ____ minutes after awaking from a short sleep (nap)

What is meant by the tem Incapacitation?

For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as

"A defined rectangular area on the gorund at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is the definition for

If contact is lost with the runway on the downwind leg of a circling maneuver, what actions should be taken?