Vayudoot Aviation

1.
The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is

10NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft

10NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft

20NM provided that the leading aircraft mainitains a true airspeed of 10kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft

2.
No unauthorized person must be present within _____ mts of alc while refueling is on

50

30

15

3.
Above FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is

2000ft

3000ft

4000ft

4.
What is Special VFR?

A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meterological conditions below VMC

A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance with IFR

Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface

5.
Which of the following statements describes the Alert Phase (ALERFA)?

An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA which was last notified to ATC

An aircraft which has bee cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication has not been re-established

An aircraft decleares that the fuel remaining is insufficient to reach safety

6.
To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is

18 and 60 years

16 and 60 years

21 and 65 years

7.
A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizuer. This assitance includes

Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land

Provision of navigation aids, air traffic servies, permission to land and cetering for passengers

Only permission to land

8.
What defines a controlled aerodrome?

It must have a control tower and be in a CTR

It must have a control tower giving an ATC service

It must be located within a CTR

9.
One of the main characteristics of wind shear is that it

Can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes

Occurs only at a low altitude (2000ft) and never in the horizontal plane

Can occur at any altityde and only in the horizontal plane

10.
The member of operating crew shall not have taken alcoholic drinks

24 hrs before commencement of flight

12 hrs before commencement of flight

6 hrs before commencement of flight

11.
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continously operate this mode

Only when directed by ATC

Regardless of ATC instructions

Unless otherwise directed by ATC

12.
How is a paved pre-threshold are which is greater than 60 m in length but not suita ble for any use by aircraft, marked?

By a yellow X

By white arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displaced threshold

By a white X

13.
Flight Manual is to be carried by

If C of A states so

Scheduled aircraft only

All aircraft

14.
Approaches at night without visual references on the ground and no landing aids (e.g., VASIS) can make the pilot believe of being

Lower than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting

Higher than actual altitdue with the risk of landing short ("ducking under")

Lower than actual altitude with the risk of ducking under

15.
When flying on a SW heading at 3500 feet you would report your heading and level as

Heading 045 at threee thousand five hundred

Southwest at three five zero zero

Heading 225 at three thoushand and five hundred

16.
A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least

20 miles from the center of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.

5 nautical miles from the center of the aerodrom or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made

10 miles from the center of the aerodrome or aerodromes concenred in the direction from which approaches may me made.

17.
The elements of the SHEL model are

Software, hardware, electronics and livewire

Software, hardware, environment and liveware

Shareware, hardware, education and limitations

18.
IFR flight in VMC, weather changes to IMC

Fly VMC and land at nearest convenient aerodrome

Change to VFR plan

Fly according to flight plan

19.
When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures

To request pilot to set transponder on position "OFF"

Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back to "ON"

To request pilot to switch from "ON" to "STBY"

20.
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than

1500ft or visibility is less than 5 km

1000ft or visibility is less than 5 km

2000ft or visibility is less than 5 km

21.
A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than

150 metres

300 meters

200 metres

22.
"Instrument runways" ar the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures

Precision approach runways category II and III

Non precision approach run ways, precision approach runways category I, II and III

Precision approach runways category I, II and III

23.
In area where a vertical separation minimum (VSM) of 300 m (1000ft) is applied between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive an aircraft on a magnetic track of 350 would be expected to fly at

FL 410

FL 405

FL 400

24.
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are

Below 2000m (600ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

Below 1500m (5000ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

Below 900m (3000ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitidue, whichever is the greater

25.
Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions

The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems.

The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly

The aircraft shall before flight sprayed with anti-icing fluid

26.
How can optimum arousal and vigilance affect a pilot?

High arousal and vigilance are necessary for a pilot in all stages of flight

In low arousal and vigilance, there is a real danger of attention becoming narrowed.

Too little arousal and vigilance have an inert affect, while too much has a hyper affect

27.
SATVOICE is

Not a valid Long-Range Communication System (LRCS) as yet

Another name for SATCOM

A valid Long-Range Communication System (LRCS)

28.
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until: 1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight. 2. Visual reference has been established and can be maintained. 3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained, and a landing can be made. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is

1, 2

2, 3

1, 2, 3

29.
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means

Need special precautions while approaching for landing

An area unit for the movement of aircraft

The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed

30.
A class A fire is a fire of

Electrical origin

Liquid or liquefiable solid

Solid material, generally of organic nature

31.
In the plumonary artery there is

Oxygen poor and carbon dioxide rich blood

Oxygen rich and carbon dioxide rich blood

Oxygen poor and carbon dioxide poor blood

32.
Purpose of VSS is to?

Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (including a circling approach)

Visual Segment Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling apporach)

Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling approach).

33.
A slow decompression may be caused by

A leak in a door seal during normal pressurized flight

Loss of a cabin window

Loss of a door

34.
A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is

An ATS NOTAM

An AIRAC

An Advisory NOTAM

35.
When flight crew members are at their duty stations they must

Keep the seat belts fastened

Fully raise the seat

Wear a communication head set

36.
A high degree of cockpit automation may later the traditional tasks of the pilots in a way, that

The crew always maintains situational awareness by being more alert

The crew pays more attention to be always in loop

The attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with the consequences of 'being out of the loop'

37.
A precision appraoch procedures based on navigation systems SBAS Cat I is designed for 3D instrument approach operations

Type B only

Type A or B

Type A only

38.
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as practical, is classifed as

Airspace E

Airspace D

Airspace C

39.
Viscous hydroplaning is caused by

A rough runway surface

A smooth and dirty runway surface

Bald tires

40.
About procedures for noise attenuation during landing

Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust

Such procedures do not exist

They prohibit the use of reverse thrust

41.
In selecting a flight level for a flight, which of the following should be taken into consideration? 1. Adequate terrain clearance is ensure 2. ATC requirements (Danger Areas, Trestricted airspace etc.) are complied with 3. Minimum traffic separation is ensured 4. Adequate separation from VFR traffic is ensued (differential flight levels applied) 5. The appropriate flight level in accordance with the table of flight levels. The level chosed complies with the table of cruising levels

1,2, 3 and 5

1, 2 and 5

All the above

42.
The number of stripes on each side of the center line of a runway which has a width of 45m is

3

6

4

43.
Disturbance of the biological clock appreas after a: 1. Bad night's sleep 2. Day flight Delhi-London 3. Day flight Delhi - Colombo 4. Night flight London-Delhi

2 and 4 are correct

1, 2 and 3 are correct

1 and 3 are correct

44.
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code

Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment

Black for food and water

Blue for blankets and protective clothing

45.
OCH for a precision approach is defined as

The lowest height above mean sea level of the relevant runway used in establishing complicance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements

The lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation used in establising compliance with appropriate obstance clearance requirements

The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold, at whihc a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria

46.
One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression sickness emerging after a decompression in airline operation

Are neurological damages to the CNS

Is a shock

Are the bends

47.
FMS/RNAV

Can be used for conventional procedures only if AFM permits.

Cannot be used for conventional procedures.

Can be used for conventional procedures if permitted by DGCA

48.
What does a red flashing light from the control over tower to an aircraft on the maneuvering area mean?

Return to the start point

Clear to taxi

Move clear of the landing area

49.
An increase in the amount of cabron dioxide in the blood leads to

A reduction of red blood cells

Shortness of breath

A decrease of acidity in the blood

50.
In radio terms, frequency means

The number of complete wave forms passing a spot in one second

The number of wave forms in one hour

The length of a complete waveform in metres

Question Bank

Questions for SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 6

The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is

No unauthorized person must be present within _____ mts of alc while refueling is on

Above FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is

What is Special VFR?

Which of the following statements describes the Alert Phase (ALERFA)?

To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is

A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizuer. This assitance includes

What defines a controlled aerodrome?

One of the main characteristics of wind shear is that it

The member of operating crew shall not have taken alcoholic drinks

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continously operate this mode

How is a paved pre-threshold are which is greater than 60 m in length but not suita ble for any use by aircraft, marked?

Flight Manual is to be carried by

Approaches at night without visual references on the ground and no landing aids (e.g., VASIS) can make the pilot believe of being

When flying on a SW heading at 3500 feet you would report your heading and level as

A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least

The elements of the SHEL model are

IFR flight in VMC, weather changes to IMC

When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures

Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than

A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than

"Instrument runways" ar the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures

In area where a vertical separation minimum (VSM) of 300 m (1000ft) is applied between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive an aircraft on a magnetic track of 350 would be expected to fly at

ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are

Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions

How can optimum arousal and vigilance affect a pilot?

SATVOICE is

A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means

A class A fire is a fire of

In the plumonary artery there is

Purpose of VSS is to?

A slow decompression may be caused by

A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is

When flight crew members are at their duty stations they must

A high degree of cockpit automation may later the traditional tasks of the pilots in a way, that

A precision appraoch procedures based on navigation systems SBAS Cat I is designed for 3D instrument approach operations

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as practical, is classifed as

Viscous hydroplaning is caused by

About procedures for noise attenuation during landing

The number of stripes on each side of the center line of a runway which has a width of 45m is

Disturbance of the biological clock appreas after a: 1. Bad night's sleep 2. Day flight Delhi-London 3. Day flight Delhi - Colombo 4. Night flight London-Delhi

The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code

OCH for a precision approach is defined as

One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression sickness emerging after a decompression in airline operation

FMS/RNAV

What does a red flashing light from the control over tower to an aircraft on the maneuvering area mean?

An increase in the amount of cabron dioxide in the blood leads to

In radio terms, frequency means