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Question Bank
Questions for SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 6
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
In the plumonary artery there is
Oxygen poor and carbon dioxide rich blood
Oxygen poor and carbon dioxide poor blood
Oxygen rich and carbon dioxide rich blood
2.
SATVOICE is
Another name for SATCOM
A valid Long-Range Communication System (LRCS)
Not a valid Long-Range Communication System (LRCS) as yet
3.
A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizuer. This assitance includes
Provision of navigation aids, air traffic servies, permission to land and cetering for passengers
Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land
Only permission to land
4.
An increase in the amount of cabron dioxide in the blood leads to
A reduction of red blood cells
A decrease of acidity in the blood
Shortness of breath
5.
In selecting a flight level for a flight, which of the following should be taken into consideration? 1. Adequate terrain clearance is ensure 2. ATC requirements (Danger Areas, Trestricted airspace etc.) are complied with 3. Minimum traffic separation is ensured 4. Adequate separation from VFR traffic is ensued (differential flight levels applied) 5. The appropriate flight level in accordance with the table of flight levels. The level chosed complies with the table of cruising levels
All the above
1, 2 and 5
1,2, 3 and 5
6.
When flying on a SW heading at 3500 feet you would report your heading and level as
Heading 045 at threee thousand five hundred
Southwest at three five zero zero
Heading 225 at three thoushand and five hundred
7.
IFR flight in VMC, weather changes to IMC
Fly VMC and land at nearest convenient aerodrome
Fly according to flight plan
Change to VFR plan
8.
Purpose of VSS is to?
Visual Segment Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling apporach)
Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (including a circling approach)
Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling approach).
9.
How is a paved pre-threshold are which is greater than 60 m in length but not suita ble for any use by aircraft, marked?
By a white X
By white arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displaced threshold
By a yellow X
10.
In radio terms, frequency means
The number of wave forms in one hour
The length of a complete waveform in metres
The number of complete wave forms passing a spot in one second
11.
Viscous hydroplaning is caused by
Bald tires
A smooth and dirty runway surface
A rough runway surface
12.
To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is
18 and 60 years
16 and 60 years
21 and 65 years
13.
When flight crew members are at their duty stations they must
Wear a communication head set
Keep the seat belts fastened
Fully raise the seat
14.
About procedures for noise attenuation during landing
They prohibit the use of reverse thrust
Such procedures do not exist
Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust
15.
When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures
Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back to "ON"
To request pilot to set transponder on position "OFF"
To request pilot to switch from "ON" to "STBY"
16.
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are
Below 1500m (5000ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
Below 2000m (600ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
Below 900m (3000ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitidue, whichever is the greater
17.
Flight Manual is to be carried by
Scheduled aircraft only
All aircraft
If C of A states so
18.
FMS/RNAV
Cannot be used for conventional procedures.
Can be used for conventional procedures only if AFM permits.
Can be used for conventional procedures if permitted by DGCA
19.
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until: 1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight. 2. Visual reference has been established and can be maintained. 3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained, and a landing can be made. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
2, 3
1, 2, 3
1, 2
20.
A class A fire is a fire of
Liquid or liquefiable solid
Electrical origin
Solid material, generally of organic nature
21.
The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is
10NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft
20NM provided that the leading aircraft mainitains a true airspeed of 10kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft
10NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft
22.
One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression sickness emerging after a decompression in airline operation
Are neurological damages to the CNS
Are the bends
Is a shock
23.
A slow decompression may be caused by
A leak in a door seal during normal pressurized flight
Loss of a cabin window
Loss of a door
24.
OCH for a precision approach is defined as
The lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation used in establising compliance with appropriate obstance clearance requirements
The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold, at whihc a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria
The lowest height above mean sea level of the relevant runway used in establishing complicance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements
25.
A precision appraoch procedures based on navigation systems SBAS Cat I is designed for 3D instrument approach operations
Type A or B
Type A only
Type B only
26.
A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is
An Advisory NOTAM
An AIRAC
An ATS NOTAM
27.
What is Special VFR?
A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meterological conditions below VMC
A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance with IFR
Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
28.
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than
2000ft or visibility is less than 5 km
1500ft or visibility is less than 5 km
1000ft or visibility is less than 5 km
29.
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as practical, is classifed as
Airspace E
Airspace C
Airspace D
30.
A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than
200 metres
300 meters
150 metres
31.
The member of operating crew shall not have taken alcoholic drinks
6 hrs before commencement of flight
12 hrs before commencement of flight
24 hrs before commencement of flight
32.
The number of stripes on each side of the center line of a runway which has a width of 45m is
3
4
6
33.
In area where a vertical separation minimum (VSM) of 300 m (1000ft) is applied between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive an aircraft on a magnetic track of 350 would be expected to fly at
FL 400
FL 410
FL 405
34.
A high degree of cockpit automation may later the traditional tasks of the pilots in a way, that
The attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with the consequences of 'being out of the loop'
The crew pays more attention to be always in loop
The crew always maintains situational awareness by being more alert
35.
Which of the following statements describes the Alert Phase (ALERFA)?
An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA which was last notified to ATC
An aircraft decleares that the fuel remaining is insufficient to reach safety
An aircraft which has bee cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication has not been re-established
36.
Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions
The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly
The aircraft shall before flight sprayed with anti-icing fluid
The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems.
37.
Disturbance of the biological clock appreas after a: 1. Bad night's sleep 2. Day flight Delhi-London 3. Day flight Delhi - Colombo 4. Night flight London-Delhi
1 and 3 are correct
1, 2 and 3 are correct
2 and 4 are correct
38.
Above FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is
2000ft
3000ft
4000ft
39.
Approaches at night without visual references on the ground and no landing aids (e.g., VASIS) can make the pilot believe of being
Lower than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting
Higher than actual altitdue with the risk of landing short ("ducking under")
Lower than actual altitude with the risk of ducking under
40.
A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least
5 nautical miles from the center of the aerodrom or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made
20 miles from the center of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
10 miles from the center of the aerodrome or aerodromes concenred in the direction from which approaches may me made.
41.
How can optimum arousal and vigilance affect a pilot?
Too little arousal and vigilance have an inert affect, while too much has a hyper affect
High arousal and vigilance are necessary for a pilot in all stages of flight
In low arousal and vigilance, there is a real danger of attention becoming narrowed.
42.
The elements of the SHEL model are
Software, hardware, environment and liveware
Shareware, hardware, education and limitations
Software, hardware, electronics and livewire
43.
No unauthorized person must be present within _____ mts of alc while refueling is on
30
15
50
44.
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continously operate this mode
Unless otherwise directed by ATC
Only when directed by ATC
Regardless of ATC instructions
45.
One of the main characteristics of wind shear is that it
Can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes
Occurs only at a low altitude (2000ft) and never in the horizontal plane
Can occur at any altityde and only in the horizontal plane
46.
What does a red flashing light from the control over tower to an aircraft on the maneuvering area mean?
Return to the start point
Move clear of the landing area
Clear to taxi
47.
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means
The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed
An area unit for the movement of aircraft
Need special precautions while approaching for landing
48.
"Instrument runways" ar the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures
Non precision approach run ways, precision approach runways category I, II and III
Precision approach runways category II and III
Precision approach runways category I, II and III
49.
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code
Blue for blankets and protective clothing
Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment
Black for food and water
50.
What defines a controlled aerodrome?
It must be located within a CTR
It must have a control tower and be in a CTR
It must have a control tower giving an ATC service
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