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Question Bank
Questions for SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 6
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
What does a red flashing light from the control over tower to an aircraft on the maneuvering area mean?
Clear to taxi
Move clear of the landing area
Return to the start point
2.
A precision appraoch procedures based on navigation systems SBAS Cat I is designed for 3D instrument approach operations
Type B only
Type A only
Type A or B
3.
No unauthorized person must be present within _____ mts of alc while refueling is on
50
30
15
4.
Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions
The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems.
The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly
The aircraft shall before flight sprayed with anti-icing fluid
5.
The member of operating crew shall not have taken alcoholic drinks
12 hrs before commencement of flight
24 hrs before commencement of flight
6 hrs before commencement of flight
6.
Above FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is
2000ft
4000ft
3000ft
7.
How can optimum arousal and vigilance affect a pilot?
In low arousal and vigilance, there is a real danger of attention becoming narrowed.
Too little arousal and vigilance have an inert affect, while too much has a hyper affect
High arousal and vigilance are necessary for a pilot in all stages of flight
8.
What defines a controlled aerodrome?
It must have a control tower giving an ATC service
It must have a control tower and be in a CTR
It must be located within a CTR
9.
IFR flight in VMC, weather changes to IMC
Fly VMC and land at nearest convenient aerodrome
Fly according to flight plan
Change to VFR plan
10.
What is Special VFR?
A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meterological conditions below VMC
A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance with IFR
Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
11.
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are
Below 900m (3000ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitidue, whichever is the greater
Below 2000m (600ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
Below 1500m (5000ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
12.
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code
Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment
Black for food and water
Blue for blankets and protective clothing
13.
In area where a vertical separation minimum (VSM) of 300 m (1000ft) is applied between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive an aircraft on a magnetic track of 350 would be expected to fly at
FL 405
FL 400
FL 410
14.
FMS/RNAV
Can be used for conventional procedures only if AFM permits.
Cannot be used for conventional procedures.
Can be used for conventional procedures if permitted by DGCA
15.
In the plumonary artery there is
Oxygen poor and carbon dioxide poor blood
Oxygen poor and carbon dioxide rich blood
Oxygen rich and carbon dioxide rich blood
16.
The elements of the SHEL model are
Software, hardware, environment and liveware
Shareware, hardware, education and limitations
Software, hardware, electronics and livewire
17.
To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is
16 and 60 years
18 and 60 years
21 and 65 years
18.
Approaches at night without visual references on the ground and no landing aids (e.g., VASIS) can make the pilot believe of being
Lower than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting
Lower than actual altitude with the risk of ducking under
Higher than actual altitdue with the risk of landing short ("ducking under")
19.
One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression sickness emerging after a decompression in airline operation
Are neurological damages to the CNS
Are the bends
Is a shock
20.
Viscous hydroplaning is caused by
A smooth and dirty runway surface
Bald tires
A rough runway surface
21.
Flight Manual is to be carried by
Scheduled aircraft only
If C of A states so
All aircraft
22.
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continously operate this mode
Only when directed by ATC
Unless otherwise directed by ATC
Regardless of ATC instructions
23.
When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures
To request pilot to set transponder on position "OFF"
Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back to "ON"
To request pilot to switch from "ON" to "STBY"
24.
Which of the following statements describes the Alert Phase (ALERFA)?
An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA which was last notified to ATC
An aircraft which has bee cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication has not been re-established
An aircraft decleares that the fuel remaining is insufficient to reach safety
25.
How is a paved pre-threshold are which is greater than 60 m in length but not suita ble for any use by aircraft, marked?
By a white X
By white arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displaced threshold
By a yellow X
26.
Disturbance of the biological clock appreas after a: 1. Bad night's sleep 2. Day flight Delhi-London 3. Day flight Delhi - Colombo 4. Night flight London-Delhi
1, 2 and 3 are correct
1 and 3 are correct
2 and 4 are correct
27.
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than
1500ft or visibility is less than 5 km
2000ft or visibility is less than 5 km
1000ft or visibility is less than 5 km
28.
SATVOICE is
Another name for SATCOM
Not a valid Long-Range Communication System (LRCS) as yet
A valid Long-Range Communication System (LRCS)
29.
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until: 1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight. 2. Visual reference has been established and can be maintained. 3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained, and a landing can be made. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
1, 2
2, 3
1, 2, 3
30.
In radio terms, frequency means
The number of complete wave forms passing a spot in one second
The number of wave forms in one hour
The length of a complete waveform in metres
31.
In selecting a flight level for a flight, which of the following should be taken into consideration? 1. Adequate terrain clearance is ensure 2. ATC requirements (Danger Areas, Trestricted airspace etc.) are complied with 3. Minimum traffic separation is ensured 4. Adequate separation from VFR traffic is ensued (differential flight levels applied) 5. The appropriate flight level in accordance with the table of flight levels. The level chosed complies with the table of cruising levels
All the above
1,2, 3 and 5
1, 2 and 5
32.
A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is
An ATS NOTAM
An AIRAC
An Advisory NOTAM
33.
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as practical, is classifed as
Airspace C
Airspace E
Airspace D
34.
A high degree of cockpit automation may later the traditional tasks of the pilots in a way, that
The crew always maintains situational awareness by being more alert
The attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with the consequences of 'being out of the loop'
The crew pays more attention to be always in loop
35.
About procedures for noise attenuation during landing
Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust
They prohibit the use of reverse thrust
Such procedures do not exist
36.
OCH for a precision approach is defined as
The lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation used in establising compliance with appropriate obstance clearance requirements
The lowest height above mean sea level of the relevant runway used in establishing complicance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements
The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold, at whihc a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria
37.
The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is
10NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft
20NM provided that the leading aircraft mainitains a true airspeed of 10kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft
10NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft
38.
A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least
10 miles from the center of the aerodrome or aerodromes concenred in the direction from which approaches may me made.
20 miles from the center of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
5 nautical miles from the center of the aerodrom or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made
39.
A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizuer. This assitance includes
Only permission to land
Provision of navigation aids, air traffic servies, permission to land and cetering for passengers
Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land
40.
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means
An area unit for the movement of aircraft
Need special precautions while approaching for landing
The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed
41.
An increase in the amount of cabron dioxide in the blood leads to
A reduction of red blood cells
A decrease of acidity in the blood
Shortness of breath
42.
"Instrument runways" ar the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures
Precision approach runways category II and III
Precision approach runways category I, II and III
Non precision approach run ways, precision approach runways category I, II and III
43.
The number of stripes on each side of the center line of a runway which has a width of 45m is
3
6
4
44.
When flying on a SW heading at 3500 feet you would report your heading and level as
Heading 225 at three thoushand and five hundred
Heading 045 at threee thousand five hundred
Southwest at three five zero zero
45.
A slow decompression may be caused by
Loss of a cabin window
A leak in a door seal during normal pressurized flight
Loss of a door
46.
When flight crew members are at their duty stations they must
Wear a communication head set
Fully raise the seat
Keep the seat belts fastened
47.
Purpose of VSS is to?
Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling approach).
Visual Segment Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling apporach)
Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (including a circling approach)
48.
One of the main characteristics of wind shear is that it
Occurs only at a low altitude (2000ft) and never in the horizontal plane
Can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes
Can occur at any altityde and only in the horizontal plane
49.
A class A fire is a fire of
Liquid or liquefiable solid
Electrical origin
Solid material, generally of organic nature
50.
A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than
150 metres
300 meters
200 metres
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