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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 1
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
Runway centre line lights are
Green
White
Blue
2.
Low visibility operations include
LVTO, Cat II and III approaches.
Cat I, II and III approaches.
Cat II and Cat III approaches.
3.
The minimum safest altitude that the aircraft can descend below the transition altitude within 25 NMs of an aerodrome area is given by
MORA
MOEA
MSA
4.
Destination and information sings are
White in back
Yellow letter in black background
Black letter in yellow background
5.
In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights should be delayed
24 hours
36 hours after any scuba diving
3 hours after non decompression diving
6.
At runway and taxiway holding lines
Yellow dashes lie towards nearest runway
White dashes lie towards nearest runway.
Yellow continuous lines lie towards runway.
7.
Hypoxia
Is normally experienced below 8000 feet
Increases with altitude
Is due to over breathing
8.
Due to fog other a/c will appear to be
Will have no difference
Nearest than normal
Farther then normal
9.
An a/c with seating capacity of 150, what is the number of flight attendants required to be carried on the flight
3
2
4
10.
The registration mark shall consist of
Letters only, no digits are permitted
A combination of letters and numbers
1 to 3 letters and digits
11.
Transponder code for distress is
7600
121.5
7700
12.
Visibility required for VFR flight below 3000' or 1000' terrain clearance is
1.6 km
8 km
5 km
13.
Aerobatics with in 2 nm of airport can not be done below
6000'
2000'
3000'
14.
Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL
Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline.
Two rows of red transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline.
Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the threshold zone.
15.
Abrupt head movement in a steep turn may cause
Spatial disorientation
Elevator illusion
False horizen
16.
Pilot in command of an aircraft on precision approach cannot execute a landing unless he has the runway visual references in contact before he can descend below
MSA
MDH
DA
17.
What does the abbreviation OIS mean?
Obstacle identification surface
Obstacle identification slope
Obstacle in surface
18.
Route designator for domestic routes is
Whiskey
Bravo
Alpha
19.
A/c on same level converging track has separation
15min
5min
10min
20.
Incubation period for relapsing fever is
8 days
6 days
7 days
21.
A pilot is used to land on wide runways only. When approaching a smaller and/ or narrower runway, the pilot may feel he is at
Greater height and the impression of landing short
Greater height than he actually is with tendency to land short
Lower than actual height with the tendency to overshoot
22.
Hyperventilation is caused due to
Decreased breathing rate
Excessive carbon mono-oxide in the blood
Emotional tension or anxiety
23.
Notams are distributed by means of
Telegrams
Mail
Telecommunications
24.
If a CPL holder is hospitalized for _________ day his medical becomes invalid
15 days
10 days
7 days
25.
Aeronautical information circulars provide information that
Does not quality as a NOTAM or an inclusion in AIP, but relates to flight safety, air navigation, administrative or legislative matters.
Temporary changes to the information contained in the AIP which are published by means of special pages
Timely knowledge of services, procedure or hazard which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations
26.
All International flights landing in India shall land at a
Any airport provided they have nothing to declare.
Any civil airport
Customs Airport only
27.
The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account: 1. Equipment available for navigation 2. Dimensions and characteristics of the runways 3. Composition of the flight crew 4. Obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas 5. Facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
1, 2, 4, 5.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
2, 4, 5.
28.
Emergency distance available for stopping aircraft is
From threshold plus 50' to end of runway
From starting point to end of clearway
From starting point to end of paved overrun.
29.
Identifier TDZL is _________ :
Green and white lights 75 mtr spacing
White paired, flash lights at 150 mtr longitudinal.
White paired variable lights with 30 mtr longitudinal spacing.
30.
What lights would a pilot slightly above glide see on a PAPI?
3 green and 1 white
2 white and 1 red
2 red and 2 white
31.
Cockpit lights are
Bright lights
Red light as they help in reading contours on maps at night
Dim white lights
32.
Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied by
Noises in the ear
A reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing pressure
Pain in the joints
33.
Centrifugal force without visual aids can be interpreted by a pilot as
Rising and falling
Turning
Motion reversal
34.
The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by
The operator, and it is appended to the flight manual.
The operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual.
The manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual.
35.
For the regeneration of mental and physical functions the most important sleep is
NREM
NREM - Stage 3
REM
36.
Final reserve fuel, for a reciprocating engine aeroplane over destination alternate, shall be
the amount of fuel required to fly for 45 minutes and do aan approach and missed approach.
the amount of fuel required to fly for two hours, under speed and altitude conditions specified by the State of the Operator.
the amount of fuel required to fly for 45 minutes, under speed and altitude conditions specified by the State of the Operator.
37.
A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways only. Approaching a larger and wider runway can lead to
An early or high "round out"
A steeper than normal approach dropping low
A flatter than normal approach with the risk of "ducking under"
38.
ADC is not required if flying in
5 nm and below 1000' AGL
5 nm and below 3000'
3 nm and below 1000'
39.
Jet Airways flight is to take off from London to Bosnia. C of A will be as per the rules of
Bosnia
India
UK
40.
If flying on a south-easterly heading at 2500 feet and you are asked to report your heading and level, then you should reply with the message
045 AT 2 POINT 5
HEADING 215 AT 2500 FEET
HEADING 135 AT TWO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED
41.
A/c passing from left to right you will see
Red and white light
Green light
Red light
42.
A white dumbbell with a black bar spaced perpendicularly indicates
Are required to land and takeoff on runways only
All aircraft are required to land, takeoff and taxi on taxiways and runways only.
A white dumbbell when displayed requires a/c to land and takeoff and taxi on taxiways and runways only.
43.
A pilot doing a test flight can carry passengers
Without payment
Cannot carry
On payment
44.
Advertisements can be painted on the exterior of an aircraft
Only if specifically permitted by DGCA.
Only for the company owning the aircraft.
Only for items not posing a health hazard.
45.
The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called...
PANS OPS Doc 8168
The Convention of Chicago
The Air Navigation bulletin
46.
If you see a white and flashing red light, ac is
Left to right
Right to left
A/c flying away from you
47.
Night flying is logged for flying done between
30' after sunset to 30' before sunrise
20' before sunrise to 20' after sunset
Sunset to sunrise
48.
Fit plan is to be filed in India in respect of
All flights other than local flights
Only for scheduled flights
All flights other than scheduled flights
49.
One a/c is tracking 030 degree reporting over a point at 0412 hrs other on 100 degree cannot pass this point before
0422
0427
0417
50.
What type of flight is allowed in class A airspace
IFR and special VFR
IFR and VFR
IFR only
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