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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for special operational procedure and hazard
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
MMEL is drawn up by
The operator and approved by the certification authority
The manufacturer and approved by the DGCA
The operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer
2.
The effect whereby a tyre is lifted from the runway due to aeroplane speed along the runway is known as
Hydroplaning
Surface tension
Aqua-skimming
3.
In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services?
The operations dispatcher
ATC
The commander
4.
Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a wind shear?
Groundspeed
Vertical speed
Indicated airspeed
5.
An ongine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut-off-handle. The fire shut-off-handle will be switched off when
The fire shut-off handle has been pulled
The fire-extinguisher has been triggered
Fire is no longer detected
6.
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is
The minimum equipment list
The operation manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency Procedures"
The flight manual
7.
To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo held
You turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire
Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an air-conditioned cargo hold is forbidden
Extinguish fire only
8.
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a LIGHT aircraft is taking off behind a MEDIUM aircraft and both are using the same runway?
3 minutes
1 minute
2 minutes
9.
In addition to inform each State, whose citizens are known to be onboard an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the
State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO
State of Registry of the aircraft and the DGCA
State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only
10.
If ditching is inevitable
The use of life jackets is to be reiterated before the ditching
Passengers should be briefed that even if they successfully evacuate the aeroplane it is inevitable that some of them will die from drowning.
Life jackets are to be inflated before leaving the aeroplane
11.
The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent area that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is
15000ft
13000ft
14000ft
12.
The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flightplan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to
20000kg
7000kg
14000kg
13.
In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will: 1. set the maximum take-off thrust 2. Increase the pitch-up altitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker 3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps) 4. keep the airplane's current configuration 5. try to reach the maximum lift-to drag ratio The combination of correct statements is
1, 3, 5
1, 2, 4
3, 5
14.
The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a
Letter falling between A and E
Zero followed by two decimals
Combination of the terms: poor, medium, good
15.
In addition to informing each state, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the
State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO
State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of he operator only.
State of the operator, the J.A.A. and ICAO.
16.
Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful Interference until their journey can be continued? The
Commander of the aircraft
DGCA
Contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs
17.
In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is
2000
7500
7700
18.
Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the
Temperature of the brakes
Pressure of the hydraulic fluid
Pressure of the pneumatic tyres
19.
A runway is considered damp when
Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance
It is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.
It is covered with a film of water of less than 1mm.
20.
Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by
15%
18%
17.6%
21.
You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you notice, after take-off, a flock of birds which may present a bird strike hazard, you must
Inform the appropriate ground station within a reasonable period of time
Immediately inform the appropriate ground station
Draft a bird strike hazard report upon arrival and within at most 48 hours
22.
The fire-extinguisher types which may be used on Class A fires are: 1. H2O 2. CO2 3. Dry-chemical 4. Halogen. The combination of correct statements is
2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4
3, 4
23.
The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the
Stalling speed
Roll rate
Value of the stall angle of attack
24.
A separation minimum shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on parallel opposite direction runway separated by
Less than760m
730m
Less than 730m
25.
When flying in straight and level flight at FL290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate
Zero
A rate of climb
A rate of descent of approximately 300fpm
26.
About procedures for noise attenuation during landing
Such procedures do not exist
Such procedures will not involve e prohibition of using reverse thrust
They prohibit the use of reverse thrust
27.
Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterize
A plastic fire
A slow depressurization
A fast depressurization
28.
Water fire extinguisher with a directed spray can be used on which fires?
Gas fires.
Solid fires.
Liquid fires.
29.
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an Increasing tailwind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1. files above the glide path 2. files below the glide path 3. has an increasing true airspeed 4. has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is
2, 4
1, 4
2, 3
30.
What precludes a runway being used for noise abatement procedures if landing in VMC?
Crosswind including gusts of 10kts.
Tailwind up to 3kts
No ILS or visual guidance
31.
In accordance with(ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplane avoid over flying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes
Turns during take-off and climb throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above terrain and the highest obstacle.
No turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise abatement procedure.
Turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 28° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)
32.
A slow decompression may be caused by: 1 a cracked window 2. a bad functioning of the pressurization 3 a minor leak in the fuselage 4. the loss of a door The combination of correct statement is
1, 2
3, 4
1, 2, 3
33.
CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight: 1. Class A fires 2. Class B fires 3. Electrical source fires 4. Special fires; metal, gas, chemical product . The combination of correct statements is
1, 2, 3
1, 3, 4
2, 3, 4
34.
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a "Heavy" aircraft preceeding a "Light" aircraft
2km
3NM
6NM
35.
A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguish to use is
Dry powder
Foam
CO2 (carbon dioxide)
36.
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure
Increase
Decreases
Remains constant
37.
A slow decompression may be caused by
loss of a cabin window
a leak in a door seal during normal pressure flight
loss of a door
38.
90% of bird strikes occur
Above 1000m
Between 500 and 1500 m
Under 500m
39.
ICAO Appendix 18 is a document dealing with
The air transport of live animals
The safety of air transport of hazardous materials
The noise pollution of aircraft
40.
During an approach procedure which involves noise abatement, the aeroplane is to be in the final landing configuration at any point after passing the .... or at a point... from the threshold of the landing runway, whichever is earlier
Outer marker, 5NM
Middle marker, 5 NM
Final marker, 6NM
41.
You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for: 1. A paper fire 2. A plastic fire 3. A hydrocarbon fire 4. An electrical fire The combination of correct statements is
1, 2, 3 4
1, 2, 3
3, 4
42.
What is the most effective method for scaring birds?
Shell crackers
Making movement
Land rover with loudspeaker
43.
In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a MEDIUM aircraft is taking off behind a HEAVY aircraft and both are using the same runway?
1 minute
3 minutes
2 minutes
44.
An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of
40kt
20kt
80kt
45.
A class B fire is a fire of
Liquid r liquefiable solid
Special fire: metal, gas, chemical product
Solid material usually of organic nature
46.
Noise abatement shall not be the determining factor in he designation of runway, under the following circumstances: 1. When cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15kt 2. when the tailwind component, including gust, exceeds 5 kt 3. when the runway is not clear or dry. The combination of correct statements is
1, 3
1, 2, 3
2, 3
47.
The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by
The handling agent
The shipper
The captain
48.
The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of hazardous materials are specified in the
Flight manual
AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication)
Operation manual
49.
The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in the
CAR OPS
Flight manual
Operation manual
50.
If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to
Determine which system is causing the smoke
Begin an emergency descent
Put on the mask and goggles
Submit
Make New Set