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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for special operational procedure and hazard
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
In addition to inform each State, whose citizens are known to be onboard an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the
State of Registry of the aircraft and the DGCA
State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only
State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO
2.
To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use: 1. A water fire-extinguisher 2. A powder or chemical fire-extinguisher 3. A halon fire-extinguisher 4. A CO2 fire extinguisher. The combination of correct statements is
2, 3, 4
3, 4
1, 2
3.
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure
Decreases
Remains constant
Increase
4.
Can dangerous goods be carried in the passenger cabin or on the flight deck?
Yes, provided they are non toxic
Yes, if authorised by the authority
Yes, but only goods specified in the technical instructions
5.
An ongine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut-off-handle. The fire shut-off-handle will be switched off when
Fire is no longer detected
The fire-extinguisher has been triggered
The fire shut-off handle has been pulled
6.
You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of: 1. Solid (fabric, carpet,...) 2. Liquids(ether, gasoline,..) 3. Gas 4. Metals (sodium,...) The combination of correct statement is
2
3
1
7.
A separation minimum shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is
2 minutes
1 minute
3 minutes
8.
Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a wind shear?
Groundspeed
Vertical speed
Indicated airspeed
9.
H2O extinguishers are fit to flight
Electrical source fires
Class B fires
Class A fires
10.
The flight deck door should be capable of being
Locked from within the compartment
Remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment
Remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment
11.
A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for: 1. A paper fire 2. A hydrocarbon fire 3. A fabric fire 4. An electrical fire 5. A wood fire The combination of correct statements is
2, 4, 5
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
1, 3, 5
12.
You will use a dry chemical powder fire-extinguisher for: 1. A paper fire 2. A plastic fire 3. hydrocarbon fire 4. An electrical fire The combination of correct statement is
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 4
1, 2, 3
13.
Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the
Pressure of the hydraulic fluid
Pressure of the pneumatic tyres
Temperature of the brakes
14.
When a commercial transport passenger airplane is equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include
Distinctive red or yellow colored markings indicating the access area (in case of a blocked door)
A locking system to prevent any unauthorized access
A sealing system allowing the maintenance for as long as possible of the pressure in the cockpit in case of a depressurization in the compartment area
15.
In accordance with(ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplane avoid over flying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes
No turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise abatement procedure.
Turns during take-off and climb throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above terrain and the highest obstacle.
Turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 28° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)
16.
A list of dangerous goods, which may not transported by air, can be found in
The shipper's declaration for dangerous goods
Annex 18 to the Chicago convention
The technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air
17.
The number of hand fire extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 401 and 500 is
6
3
5
18.
The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the
Aircraft's weight
Depth of the standing water of the runway
Strength of the headwind
19.
A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements: 1. Mist in the cabin 2. Blast towards the exterior of the aircraft 3. Expansion of body gases 4. Blast of air released violently from the lungs The combination of correct elements is
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 4
1, 2, 3
20.
In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a MEDIUM aircraft is taking off behind a HEAVY aircraft and both are using the same runway?
1 minute
3 minutes
2 minutes
21.
Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterize
A fast depressurization
A slow depressurization
A plastic fire
22.
In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services?
The operations dispatcher
ATC
The commander
23.
A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguish to use is
Foam
CO2 (carbon dioxide)
Dry powder
24.
During an approach procedure which involves noise abatement, the aeroplane is to be in the final landing configuration at any point after passing the .... or at a point... from the threshold of the landing runway, whichever is earlier
Outer marker, 5NM
Middle marker, 5 NM
Final marker, 6NM
25.
A slow decompression may be caused by
loss of a cabin window
loss of a door
a leak in a door seal during normal pressure flight
26.
Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by
17.6%
18%
15%
27.
A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be
Contaminated
Flooded
Damp
28.
If ditching is inevitable
Passengers should be briefed that even if they successfully evacuate the aeroplane it is inevitable that some of them will die from drowning.
The use of life jackets is to be reiterated before the ditching
Life jackets are to be inflated before leaving the aeroplane
29.
A class B fire is a fire of
Special fire: metal, gas, chemical product
Solid material usually of organic nature
Liquid r liquefiable solid
30.
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a LIGHT aircraft is taking off behind a MEDIUM aircraft and both are using the same runway?
2 minutes
1 minute
3 minutes
31.
The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a
Letter falling between A and E
Combination of the terms: poor, medium, good
Zero followed by two decimals
32.
Wake turbulence risk is highest
If, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind.
When a preceding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.
When a heavy aircraft has just performed take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind.
33.
A runway is considered damp when
Surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance
Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give a shiny appearance
It is covered with a film of water of less than 3mm
34.
After a landing, with overweight and over speed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres
From anyside
Only from front or rear side
Only from left or right sides
35.
You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1. Solids (fabric, plastic,...) 2. Liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...) 3. Gas 4. Metals (aluminium, magnesium,...) The combination of correct statements is
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 4
1, 2, 3
36.
In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft?
Medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes
Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes
Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes
37.
Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful Interference until their journey can be continued? The
Commander of the aircraft
Contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs
DGCA
38.
In public transport, prior take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that
Possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits
External surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5mm
External surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual
39.
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an Increasing tailwind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1. files above the glide path 2. files below the glide path 3. has an increasing true airspeed 4. has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is
2, 4
1, 4
2, 3
40.
The effect whereby a tyre is lifted from the runway due to aeroplane speed along the runway is known as
Hydroplaning
Surface tension
Aqua-skimming
41.
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act to
Both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
The local authority only
The Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful interference
42.
In compliance with the CAR-OPS, in order to carry hazardous materials on board a public transport airplane, they must be accompanied with a
Transport document for hazardous materials
Representative of the company owing the materials
Specialized handling employee
43.
The fire-extinguisher types which may be used on Class B fires are: 1. H2O 2. CO2 3. Dry-chemical 5. Halogen. The combination of correct statements is
2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4
3, 4
44.
One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it
Can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane
Can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes
Occurs only at a low altitude (200ft) and never in the horizontal plane
45.
You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for: 1. A paper fire 2. A plastic fire 3. A hydrocarbon fire 4. An electrical fire The combination of correct statements is
1, 2, 3 4
1, 2, 3
3, 4
46.
Fire extinguishers should be located in the pilots compartment and....
At each door
At each passenger compartment that is separate from the pilots compartment and not readily accessible to the flight crew.
In the passenger cabin
47.
The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flightplan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to
14000kg
7000kg
20000kg
48.
An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of
20kt
80kt
40kt
49.
What precludes a runway being used for noise abatement procedures if landing in VMC?
No ILS or visual guidance
Crosswind including gusts of 10kts.
Tailwind up to 3kts
50.
The fire-extinguisher types which may be used on Class A fires are: 1. H2O 2. CO2 3. Dry-chemical 4. Halogen. The combination of correct statements is
1, 2, 3, 4
3, 4
2, 3, 4
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