Vayudoot Aviation

1.
What does the abbreviation DER mean?

Distance end of runway

Departure end of runway

Departure end of route

2.
In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centreline within

15°

12.5°

25°

3.
SID terminates at

point 15 nms from DER on departure leg.

the first fix of the en-route phase.

fix decided by the pilot before reaching TOC

4.
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-comm shall Indicate the situation by setting the transponder to

7700

7000

7500

5.
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is

Contact approach.

Visual manoeuving (circling).

Aerodrome traffic patterm

6.
When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined

For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them

Only for categories C, D and E aircraft

For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them

7.
What is the minimum gradient for missed approach procedure?

3.3%

2.5%

2.8%

8.
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder

Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes

Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace

At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes

9.
Which of the following is an invalid squawk?

A/8765+C

A/2000+C

A/7777+C

10.
You test your altimeter with aerodrome QNH set. What would a serviceable altimeter read?

The height of the aeroplane above the datum

The altitude of the aeroplane above the datum

The elevation of the position of the aeroplane plus the height of the altimeter static vent

11.
During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turning onto the desired track?

Transition altitude

1000 ft

120 m (394 ft)

12.
A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach

using bearing, elevation and distance information

carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method

using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information

13.
If you are flying outside an aerodrome traffic zone, what are you required to set on your altimeter sub scale?

Regional QFF

The local QNH obtained from FIS or the nearest aerodrome

The lowest forecast pressure setting with respect to MSL for the area in which you are flying

14.
We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within

15° of the alignment of the runway centreline

10° of the alignment of the runway centreline

25° of the alignment of the runway centreline

15.
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected

To request from ATC different heading for wind correction

To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace

To ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track

16.
The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called...

The Air Navigation bulletin

PANS OPS Doc 8168

The Convention of Chicago

17.
Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) indications shall be used by pilots in

Both B) and C) are correct

The active search for, and visual acquisition of, conflicting traffic.

The enhancement of situational awareness,

18.
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals

3.3% gradient

0ft

35ft

19.
Which of the following correctly defines altitudes?

Vertical position with reference to touchdown

Vertical position with reference to MSL

Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation

20.
Which of the following correctly defines flight level?

Vertical position with reference to the standard pressure level

Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation

Vertical position with reference to MSL

21.
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the

Landing runway

Final missed approach track

MAP

22.
What is gradient for departure runway?

2.8%

2.5%

3.3%

23.
In the standard atmosphere FL 150 is equivalent to

4 550 metres

15 000 metres

455 metres

24.
On a single SSR control box/selector system (ie no changeover switch), what is the correct procedure for changing squawk?

Only change one digit at a time

Squawk 'standby', then change the code; then squawk 'normal'.

Squawk 'off', then change the code; then Squawk 'normal'.

25.
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to

Track

Heading

Course

26.
The approach categories of aircraft are based upon

1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at maximum certified landing mass

1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at minimum certified landing mass

1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at minimum certified landing mass

27.
Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code

A 7600 Mode C

A 7620 Mode C

A 0029 Mode C

28.
What is the meaning of MEHT?

Minimum eye height

Maximum eye height

Mean height over threshold

29.
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

Initial and final

Arrival, initial, intermediate and final

Initial, intermediate and final

30.
What is the primary area during the intermediate section of an instrument approach?

1/2 of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach

10 NM either side of the approach path

3/4 of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach

31.
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a

Reversal track

Procedure turn

Race track

32.
When you are asked to hold on a non standard holding fix (eg en route) what direction are the turns made?

Right

Left

At pilots discretion

33.
Which of the following cruising levels would you select under the following conditions: True track 358°, variation 3°E, deviation 2°W?

FL 75

FL 70

FL 65

34.
The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is

the terrain surrounding the aerodrome

availability of navigation aids

ATC availability and requirements

35.
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of

10NM

30NM

25NM

36.
Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?

Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound

Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound

Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

37.
OCH for a precision approach is defined as

The lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements

The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold, at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria

The lowest height above mean sea level of the relevant runway used in establishing

38.
Which of the following correctly defines height?

Vertical position with reference to touchdown

Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation

Vertical position with reference to MSL

39.
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called

Based turn

Shuttle

Procedure turn

40.
On receipt of a TA, pilots shall

Notify the appropriate ATC unit of the TA

Respond immediately by following the TA as indicated

Not manoeuvre their aircraft in response to traffic advisories (TAs) only

41.
What is the relationship between IFR and VFR flight level?

IFR levels are flown on mag tracks from 000 to 179 an VFR levels from 180 to 359

For given mag track, the VFR level is the IFR level plus 500' if below FL290

VFR levels may be flown in VMC or IMC, but IFR levels must only be flown in IMC

42.
If the QNH is 991 Mb where is FL? (Assume 1 Mb = 30 ft)

Below sea levell

660 ft above mean sea level

660 ft above mean transition level

43.
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a

Rate of 3°/sec

Rate of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank

Rate of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank

44.
A circling approach is

A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight

A visual flight manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC

A flight manoeuvere to be performed only under radar vectoring

45.
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centreline more than

half scale deflection of the localizer indicator

full scale deflection of the localizer indicator

half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35° off the centreline

46.
What does the abbreviation ACAS mean?

Airborne Collision Avoidance System

Automatic Collision Avoidance System

Advisory, Counselling and Arbitration Service

47.
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?

When the aircraft has the control tower in sight

When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet

When the aircraft is visual contact with the ground and with the runway in sight

48.
The ILS glide path is normally intercepted between

3 and 10NM

5 and 10NM

3 and 7NM

49.
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?

The terrain surrounding the airport

Navigation aids

ATC requirements

50.
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a

Base turn

Race track

Procedure turn

Question Bank

Questions for procedure for air navigation services

What does the abbreviation DER mean?

In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centreline within

SID terminates at

When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-comm shall Indicate the situation by setting the transponder to

The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is

When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined

What is the minimum gradient for missed approach procedure?

When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder

Which of the following is an invalid squawk?

You test your altimeter with aerodrome QNH set. What would a serviceable altimeter read?

During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turning onto the desired track?

A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach

If you are flying outside an aerodrome traffic zone, what are you required to set on your altimeter sub scale?

We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within

If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected

The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called...

Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) indications shall be used by pilots in

In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals

Which of the following correctly defines altitudes?

Which of the following correctly defines flight level?

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the

What is gradient for departure runway?

In the standard atmosphere FL 150 is equivalent to

On a single SSR control box/selector system (ie no changeover switch), what is the correct procedure for changing squawk?

In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to

The approach categories of aircraft are based upon

Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code

What is the meaning of MEHT?

Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

What is the primary area during the intermediate section of an instrument approach?

A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a

When you are asked to hold on a non standard holding fix (eg en route) what direction are the turns made?

Which of the following cruising levels would you select under the following conditions: True track 358°, variation 3°E, deviation 2°W?

The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is

The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of

Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?

OCH for a precision approach is defined as

Which of the following correctly defines height?

In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called

On receipt of a TA, pilots shall

What is the relationship between IFR and VFR flight level?

If the QNH is 991 Mb where is FL? (Assume 1 Mb = 30 ft)

In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a

A circling approach is

Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centreline more than

What does the abbreviation ACAS mean?

Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?

The ILS glide path is normally intercepted between

In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?

A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a