Vayudoot Aviation

1.
What is the rate of turn/bank angle required for turns in a holding pattern?

15 degrees bank angle maximum

3 degrees per second

5 degrees per second

2.
PANS-OPS means:

Procedures for Air Navigation Systems - Airfield operations

Pilots Alternate Navigational Systems and Operational Procedures

Procedures for Air Navigation Services - Aircraft operations

3.
Which of the following correctly defines height?

Vertical position with reference to MSL

Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation

Vertical position with reference to touchdown

4.
What is the meaning of MEHT?

Maximum eye height

Mean height over threshold

Minimum eye height

5.
You are entering a FIR where SSR is used from an area where SSR is not used. What would you squawk?

A/1234+C

Standby

A/2000+C

6.
Which of the following correctly defines flight level?

Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation

Vertical position with reference to the standard pressure level

Vertical position with reference to MSL

7.
Maximum permissible bank angle in a holding pattern is _________ degrees

30

35

25

8.
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot

Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace

Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC

Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions

9.
During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as

Altitude above mean sea level during climb.

Altitude above mean sea level during descent

Either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb

10.
When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined

Only for categories C, D and E aircraft

For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them

For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them

11.
What is gradient for departure runway?

3.3%

2.8%

2.5%

12.
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a

Procedure turn

Reversal track

Race track

13.
What is the obstacle clearance in the intermediate approach segment?

Reducing from 300 m to 150 m

300 m (984 ft)

200 m (656 ft)

14.
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the

FAP

FAF

IF

15.
In selecting a flight level for a flight, which of the following should be taken into consideration? 1. Adequate terrain clearance is ensured 2.ATC requirements (Danger Areas, restricted airspace etc.) are complied with 3.Minimum traffic separation is ensured 4. Adequate separation from VFR traffic is ensured (differential flight levels applied) 5. The appropriate flight level in accordance with the table of flight levels The level chosen complies with the table of cruising levels

All the above

1, 2, 3 and 5

1, 2 and 5

16.
The ILS glide path is normally intercepted between

5 and 10NM

3 and 10NM

3 and 7NM

17.
When you are asked to hold on a non standard holding fix (eg en route) what direction are the turns made?

Left

At pilots discretion

Right

18.
An expected approach time is given

On all flights

Once an aircraft has been holding for 20 minutes

When an aircraft is instructed to hold

19.
OCH for a precision approach is defined as

The lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements

The lowest height above mean sea level of the relevant runway used in establishing

The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold, at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria

20.
If you are flying outside an aerodrome traffic zone, what are you required to set on your altimeter sub scale?

The lowest forecast pressure setting with respect to MSL for the area in which you are flying

The local QNH obtained from FIS or the nearest aerodrome

Regional QFF

21.
Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexbility on either side of the sectors boundaries of

20°

5°

10°

22.
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of

20NM

25NM

5NM

23.
What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the relevant DH or MDH?

Glide path

Go around / Missed Approach

Approach to landing

24.
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a

Rate of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank

Rate of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank

Rate of 3°/sec

25.
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centreline more than

full scale deflection of the localizer indicator

half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35° off the centreline

half scale deflection of the localizer indicator

26.
The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below

4000ft

1000ft

1500ft

27.
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of

10NM

25NM

30NM

28.
Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless

They operate a transponder with Mode C

They operate within controlled airspace

Requested by ATC

29.
We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within

15° of the alignment of the runway centreline

10° of the alignment of the runway centreline

25° of the alignment of the runway centreline

30.
What obstacle clearance is guaranteed at a range of 5 nm from the edge of the holding area?

300 m

Nil

100 m

31.
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals

3.3% gradient

35ft

0ft

32.
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until: 1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made The combination regrouping all the correct statements is

1, 2

1, 2, 3

2, 3

33.
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a

Race track

Base turn

Procedure turn

34.
In a standard holding pattern turns are made

To the right

To the left

In a direction depending on the wind direction

35.
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?

Navigation aids

The terrain surrounding the airport

ATC requirements

36.
What does the abbreviation ACAS mean?

Airborne Collision Avoidance System

Automatic Collision Avoidance System

Advisory, Counselling and Arbitration Service

37.
The Transition Level

Is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command

Is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP

Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude

38.
In an offset entry into an omni directional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to

1 minutes

1 minutes 30 seconds

2 minutes

39.
What does the abbreviation OIS mean?

Obstacle in surface

Obstacle identification surface

Obstacle identification slope

40.
Which of the following defines transition altitude?

The altitude above which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to local QHN

The altitude at which 1013 hPa is set and vertical position then reported as a flight level

The altitude above which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to local QHN

41.
A circling approach is

A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight

A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring

A contact flight manoeuvre

42.
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communication shall set the transponder to Mode A Code

2000

7600

7700

43.
When determining the OCA for a precision approach, obstacle height is referenced to

MSL

Threshold

highest obstacle within 25 nm of aerodrome

44.
A pre-flight altimeter check should be carried out

On the manoeuvring area

On the apron

At a known elevation on the aerodrome

45.
Which of the following cruising levels would you select under the following conditions: True track 358°, variation 3°E, deviation 2°W?

FL 75

FL 65

FL 70

46.
SID terminates at

the first fix of the en-route phase.

fix decided by the pilot before reaching TOC

point 15 nms from DER on departure leg.

47.
Who is establishing the aerodrome operational minima for instrument approaches?

The operator

The appropriate authority of the State of the aerodrome

The appropriate authority of the State of the aircraft operator

48.
Which of the following correctly defines altitudes?

Vertical position with reference to MSL

Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation

Vertical position with reference to touchdown

49.
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected

To ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track

To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace

To request from ATC different heading for wind correction

50.
On a single SSR control box/selector system (ie no changeover switch), what is the correct procedure for changing squawk?

Only change one digit at a time

Squawk 'standby', then change the code; then squawk 'normal'.

Squawk 'off', then change the code; then Squawk 'normal'.

Question Bank

Questions for procedure for air navigation services

What is the rate of turn/bank angle required for turns in a holding pattern?

PANS-OPS means:

Which of the following correctly defines height?

What is the meaning of MEHT?

You are entering a FIR where SSR is used from an area where SSR is not used. What would you squawk?

Which of the following correctly defines flight level?

Maximum permissible bank angle in a holding pattern is _________ degrees

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot

During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as

When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined

What is gradient for departure runway?

A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a

What is the obstacle clearance in the intermediate approach segment?

In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the

The ILS glide path is normally intercepted between

When you are asked to hold on a non standard holding fix (eg en route) what direction are the turns made?

An expected approach time is given

OCH for a precision approach is defined as

If you are flying outside an aerodrome traffic zone, what are you required to set on your altimeter sub scale?

Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexbility on either side of the sectors boundaries of

Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of

What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the relevant DH or MDH?

In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a

Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centreline more than

The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below

The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of

Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless

We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within

What obstacle clearance is guaranteed at a range of 5 nm from the edge of the holding area?

In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals

A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a

In a standard holding pattern turns are made

In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?

What does the abbreviation ACAS mean?

The Transition Level

In an offset entry into an omni directional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to

What does the abbreviation OIS mean?

Which of the following defines transition altitude?

A circling approach is

The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communication shall set the transponder to Mode A Code

When determining the OCA for a precision approach, obstacle height is referenced to

A pre-flight altimeter check should be carried out

Which of the following cruising levels would you select under the following conditions: True track 358°, variation 3°E, deviation 2°W?

SID terminates at

Who is establishing the aerodrome operational minima for instrument approaches?

Which of the following correctly defines altitudes?

If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected

On a single SSR control box/selector system (ie no changeover switch), what is the correct procedure for changing squawk?