Vayudoot Aviation

1.
What is the relationship between IFR and VFR flight level?

For given mag track, the VFR level is the IFR level plus 500' if below FL290

IFR levels are flown on mag tracks from 000 to 179 an VFR levels from 180 to 359

VFR levels may be flown in VMC or IMC, but IFR levels must only be flown in IMC

2.
PANS-OPS means:

Procedures for Air Navigation Services - Aircraft operations

Pilots Alternate Navigational Systems and Operational Procedures

Procedures for Air Navigation Systems - Airfield operations

3.
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a

Rate of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank

Rate of 3°/sec

Rate of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank

4.
Which of the following cruising levels would you select under the following conditions: True track 358°, variation 3°E, deviation 2°W?

FL 75

FL 70

FL 65

5.
During a pre-flight a SSR transponder is found to be inoperative and immediate repair is not possible

A flight can not be made

A flight to be closest airport, where a repair can be made is allowed

It is necessary to specify this failure in the appropriate field of the flight plan

6.
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

1 minute

1 minute 30 seconds

2 minutes

7.
Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?

Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound

Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound

8.
A radial is

A magnetic bearing to or from a VOR station, depending on whether the aircraft is inbound or outbound to or from the VOR

A magnetic bearing extending from a VOR station

A magnetic bearing to a VOR station

9.
Your aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference (hi jacking). Without upsetting the man with the gun, what would you squawk?

Either A/7700 or A/7500 depending upon the situation

A/7600+C

A/7500+C

10.
Which of the following correctly defines height?

Vertical position with reference to touchdown

Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation

Vertical position with reference to MSL

11.
The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25hPA when passing

Transition layer

Transition altitude

The level specified by ATC

12.
What is the primary area during the intermediate section of an instrument approach?

3/4 of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach

10 NM either side of the approach path

1/2 of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach

13.
You test your altimeter with aerodrome QNH set. What would a serviceable altimeter read?

The altitude of the aeroplane above the datum

The height of the aeroplane above the datum

The elevation of the position of the aeroplane plus the height of the altimeter static vent

14.
The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is

the terrain surrounding the aerodrome

ATC availability and requirements

availability of navigation aids

15.
Which of the following is the location of FL?

The first level above the transition level

The atmospheric pressure level of 1013.25mb

The level defined with reference to a QNH of 1013.25mb

16.
The approach categories of aircraft are based upon

1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at minimum certified landing mass

1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at maximum certified landing mass

1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at minimum certified landing mass

17.
Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) indications shall be used by pilots in

Both B) and C) are correct

The active search for, and visual acquisition of, conflicting traffic.

The enhancement of situational awareness,

18.
In selecting a flight level for a flight, which of the following should be taken into consideration? 1. Adequate terrain clearance is ensured 2.ATC requirements (Danger Areas, restricted airspace etc.) are complied with 3.Minimum traffic separation is ensured 4. Adequate separation from VFR traffic is ensured (differential flight levels applied) 5. The appropriate flight level in accordance with the table of flight levels The level chosen complies with the table of cruising levels

1, 2 and 5

1, 2, 3 and 5

All the above

19.
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a

Procedure turn

Race track

Reversal track

20.
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to

Heading

Track

Course

21.
What is the minimum gradient for missed approach procedure?

2.5%

2.8%

3.3%

22.
You are entering a FIR where SSR is used from an area where SSR is not used. What would you squawk?

A/2000+C

Standby

A/1234+C

23.
In an offset entry into an omni directional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to

1 minutes 30 seconds

1 minutes

2 minutes

24.
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?

ATC requirements

The terrain surrounding the airport

Navigation aids

25.
SID terminates at

the first fix of the en-route phase.

point 15 nms from DER on departure leg.

fix decided by the pilot before reaching TOC

26.
Which of the following correctly defines flight level?

Vertical position with reference to MSL

Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation

Vertical position with reference to the standard pressure level

27.
A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach

using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information

carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method

using bearing, elevation and distance information

28.
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communication shall set the transponder to Mode A Code

2000

7700

7600

29.
What does the abbreviation OIS mean?

Obstacle identification slope

Obstacle identification surface

Obstacle in surface

30.
On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight -in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is

40 degrees or less

30 degrees or less

20 degrees or less

31.
What are you required to do if you become aware that your transponder has failed?

Tell ATC

Switch the set off

Try recycling the transponder and set 7777 to maximise the response

32.
What is the obstacle clearance in the intermediate approach segment?

200 m (656 ft)

300 m (984 ft)

Reducing from 300 m to 150 m

33.
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode

Unless otherwise directed by ATC

Regardless of ATC instructions

Only when directed by ATC

34.
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centreline more than

half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35° off the centreline

half scale deflection of the localizer indicator

full scale deflection of the localizer indicator

35.
In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centreline within

12.5°

25°

15°

36.
Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code

A 7600 Mode C

A 7620 Mode C

A 0029 Mode C

37.
When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined

Only for categories C, D and E aircraft

For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them

For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them

38.
OCH for a precision approach is defined as

The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold, at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria

The lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements

The lowest height above mean sea level of the relevant runway used in establishing

39.
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected

To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace

To request from ATC different heading for wind correction

To ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track

40.
A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the departure airfield are satisfactory

could ceiling and RVR

could base and RVR

MDH and RVR

41.
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

Initial and final

Arrival, initial, intermediate and final

Initial, intermediate and final

42.
When you are asked to hold on a non standard holding fix (eg en route) what direction are the turns made?

Left

At pilots discretion

Right

43.
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the

Landing runway

MAP

Final missed approach track

44.
Who is establishing the aerodrome operational minima for instrument approaches?

The operator

The appropriate authority of the State of the aerodrome

The appropriate authority of the State of the aircraft operator

45.
What is the rate of turn/bank angle required for turns in a holding pattern?

5 degrees per second

3 degrees per second

15 degrees bank angle maximum

46.
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder

Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace

Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes

At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes

47.
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of

20NM

5NM

25NM

48.
A circling approach is

A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring

A contact flight manoeuvre

A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight

49.
What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the relevant DH or MDH?

Approach to landing

Go around / Missed Approach

Glide path

50.
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-comm shall Indicate the situation by setting the transponder to

7000

7700

7500

Question Bank

Questions for procedure for air navigation services

What is the relationship between IFR and VFR flight level?

PANS-OPS means:

In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a

Which of the following cruising levels would you select under the following conditions: True track 358°, variation 3°E, deviation 2°W?

During a pre-flight a SSR transponder is found to be inoperative and immediate repair is not possible

What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?

A radial is

Your aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference (hi jacking). Without upsetting the man with the gun, what would you squawk?

Which of the following correctly defines height?

The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25hPA when passing

What is the primary area during the intermediate section of an instrument approach?

You test your altimeter with aerodrome QNH set. What would a serviceable altimeter read?

The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is

Which of the following is the location of FL?

The approach categories of aircraft are based upon

Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) indications shall be used by pilots in

A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a

In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to

What is the minimum gradient for missed approach procedure?

You are entering a FIR where SSR is used from an area where SSR is not used. What would you squawk?

In an offset entry into an omni directional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to

In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?

SID terminates at

Which of the following correctly defines flight level?

A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach

The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communication shall set the transponder to Mode A Code

What does the abbreviation OIS mean?

On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight -in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is

What are you required to do if you become aware that your transponder has failed?

What is the obstacle clearance in the intermediate approach segment?

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode

Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centreline more than

In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centreline within

Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code

When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined

OCH for a precision approach is defined as

If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected

A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the departure airfield are satisfactory

Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

When you are asked to hold on a non standard holding fix (eg en route) what direction are the turns made?

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the

Who is establishing the aerodrome operational minima for instrument approaches?

What is the rate of turn/bank angle required for turns in a holding pattern?

When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder

Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of

A circling approach is

What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the relevant DH or MDH?

When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-comm shall Indicate the situation by setting the transponder to