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Question Bank
Questions for INDIGO AIR LAW 1-513
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should
Read back those parts containing level assignments, vectors or any part requiring verification.
Read back should be unsolicited.
Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation
Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and transponder codes
2.
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is
3 minutes
8 minutes.
5 minutes
10 minutes.
3.
Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failure?
Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
Return to the aerodrome of departure
Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, start approach at your ETA.
Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions.
4.
Where a ""Secondary Surveillance Radar"" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°
5.
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is
5 KT
8 KT
3 KT
10 KT
6.
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
45 metres
50 metres
35 metres
40 metres
7.
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than
3m.
12m.
9m.
6m.
8.
Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes
F and G only
A, B, C, D, E, F and G
C, D, E, F, and G
F only
9.
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least
2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility
Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface, 8 km visibility.
1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.
1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.
10.
The transition level
shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established
shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established
is calculated and decided by the commander
for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP
11.
""Instrument runways"" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures
Precision approach runways in general.
Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
Precision approach runways category I, II and III.
Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
12.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately
8 NM
6 NM.
5 NM.
10 NM.
13.
According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for
Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter
Two years
One year
Five years after licence issuie
14.
Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of
2%
3.3%
2.5%
5%
15.
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified
Airspace F
Airspace D
Airspace G
Airspace E
16.
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a
Base turn.
Race track
Reversal track.
Procedure turn.
17.
Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit.
18.
It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure
Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists
Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists
Permits circling only in VMC.
Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway
19.
The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done
through a central control unit.
with the pilot's consent.
automatically at the control zone boundary.
by agreement with the receiving unit.
20.
The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight.
The longuest aeroplane maximum width only
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane
21.
The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion)
+/- 250 ft.
+/- 200 ft.
+/- 150 ft
+/- 300 ft.
22.
Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by
the Rome Convention
the Montreal Convention
the Chicago Convention
the Warsaw Convention
23.
The loading limitations shall include
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loadings
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings
all limiting mass and centres of gravity
all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
24.
The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where
An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
25.
The abbreviation PAPI stands for
Precision Approach Power Indicator.
Precision Approach Path Index
Precision Approach Power Index.
Precision Approach Path Indicator
26.
Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said appropriate authority
Shall be specified to ICAO
Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting states
Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
27.
The ""PAPI"" shall consist of
A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced
A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
28.
An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence or expected occurence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is
A NOTAM
An En-Route Meteo Report
A SIGMET information
An AIRMET information
29.
Which does ATC Term ""Radar contact"" signify?
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.
You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
30.
What does the abbreviation OIS mean?
Distance end of runway
Distance end of route
Departure end of route.
Depature end of runway.
31.
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals
Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground
Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist
Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
Crossing arms extended above his head
32.
A circling approach is
A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
A contact flight manoeuvre.
A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.
A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring
33.
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.
Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
34.
Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when
The preceeding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The preceeding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
35.
Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway.Identification has to be achieved within
5NM
2NM
3NM
1NM
36.
A so called ""Visual Approach"" can be performed
during IFR and VFR flights in VMC,
during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground
as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more
during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure,
37.
A ""precision approach"" is a direct instrument approach
using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft.
using bearing, elevation and distance information.
using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information.
carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method.
38.
While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft
may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
must return to its point of departure.
must stop.
must vacate the landing area in use.
39.
""ASDA"" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is
The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided).
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided) .
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided) .
40.
Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply
only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights
to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state
only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights
only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo
41.
In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least
492 ft
984 ft
decreasing from 984 to 492 ft
1476 ft
42.
An AIRAC is
An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.
A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.
A package which consists of the following elements : AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries
A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
43.
In the ""PAPI"" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when
Only on the approach slope.
On or close to the approach slope.
Above the approach slope.
Below the approach slope.
44.
Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than
20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold
25 knots at any stage
10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold
15 knots at any stage
45.
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
2 minutes 30 seconds.
1 minute.
2 minutes.
1 minute 30 seconds.
46.
A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to
a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
47.
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
Mode A code 7700.
Mode A code 7600.
Mode A code 7500.
Mode B code 7600.
48.
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than
200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes
200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command
200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command
150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command
49.
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours
Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes
Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes
Instructional flight time as studen-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes.
Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
50.
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of
22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200
25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190
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