Vayudoot Aviation

1.
Which statement is correct?

The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level

The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700 ft AGL

The lower limit o a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500 ft AGL

The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000 ft AMSL

2.
A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means

Continue circling and wait for further instructions

Give way to other aircraft in emergency

The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling

The airport is unsafe, do not land

3.
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that

landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only,

taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ,

this aerodrome is using parallel runways

gliderflying is performed outside the landing area,

4.
Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that : the missed approach track for one approach diverges by

at least 15° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

5.
In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of

300 m.

250 m

200 m

150 m

6.
Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than

20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold

25 knots at any stage

15 knots at any stage

10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold

7.
For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft

will stop on the parking area

will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.

will land.

will arrive overhead the initial approach fix

8.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is

10 minutes.

5 minutes.

3 minutes.

6 minutes

9.
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code

Black for food and water.

Yellow for blankets and protective clothing

Red for food and water

Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment

10.
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?

Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.

Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.

Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.

Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.

11.
The runway edge lights shall be

blue

red

green

white

12.
Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service

Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified.

may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.

need to file a flight plan

Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service.

13.
The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is

Annex 11

Annex 2

Annex 1

Annex 12

14.
When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as possible and

At least immediately before landing.

At least 30 minute prior to land.

At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace.

At least one hour prior to land.

15.
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot

Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace.

Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions.

Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC.

Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC.

16.
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained byan aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?

1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course

2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course

2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course

1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft

17.
Alert phase is defined as follows

A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency.

A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants

A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted

An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger

18.
A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should

Read back should be unsolicited.

Read back those parts containing level assignments, vectors or any part requiring verification.

Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation

Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and transponder codes

19.
""Code letter D"" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be

15 m.

18 m.

23 m.

25 m.

20.
When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of

1 NM from touchdown

2 NM from touchdown

2.5 NM from touchdown.

3 NM from touchdown

21.
The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit

50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence

the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority

in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence

in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence

22.
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals

0 ft.

35 ft.

0.8 % gradient.

3.3 % gradient

23.
The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is

250 KT IAS

250 KT TAS

260 KT IAS

Not applicable

24.
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denounciation shall take effect

2 months following the date ICAO is informed

3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments

6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments

4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governements

25.
On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to

other converging aircraft

aircraft taking off or about to take off

other vehicles and pedestrians

all vehicles moving on the apron except the ""follow me"" vehicle

26.
Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus

15 seconds of UTC at all times

30 seconds of UTC at all times

1 minute of UTC at all times

10 seconds of UTC at all times

27.
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be

5 minutes

3 minutes

2 minutes

10 minutes

28.
For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as

the boarding has to be done at the state discretion

the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion

boarding after to all other passengers

boarding prior to all passengers

29.
For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night

5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command

5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command

5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot

5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command

30.
The ""estimated total time"" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time

required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time).

of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day

required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.

required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.

31.
According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has

Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training

A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer

A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.

Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member

32.
The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is

240 KT IAS

250 KT TAS

250 KT IAS

Not applicable

33.
The primary area of an instrument approach segment is

the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully,

the first part of the segment

the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from o ft to the appropriate minimum

A defined are symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided.

34.
Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class

C, D and E airspaces

E airspace

D airspace

D and E airspaces

35.
The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by

The letters P ( Prohibited), R ( Restricted) and D ( Dangerous) followed by figures

The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and figures

The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and D

The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the letters P. R and D and figures

36.
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law

may request such person to disembark

may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members

may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person

may deliver such person to the competent authorities

37.
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?

1 minute

3 minutes

5 minutes

2 minutes

38.
What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC?

Time separation and track separation.

Composite separation.

Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.

Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal separation.

39.
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least

200 hours of flight time

200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time

150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time

150 hours of flight time

40.
Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of

Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

Avoiding colisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

41.
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""G"" above 10 000 feet MSL are

1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility

1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility

1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 5 km visibility

1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.

42.
It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure

Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists

Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists

Permits circling only in VMC.

Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway

43.
The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported

as height.

as flight level.

According to pilot's choice.

as altitude.

44.
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is

10 KT

5 KT

8 KT

3 KT

45.
The pilot in command of an aircraft:1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.2 - is responsible only if he is the ""pilot flying"".3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction.5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

05-Mar

2003-04-05

2002-03-05

1 - 4

46.
""Clearway"" is defined rectangular area established to

Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height

Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off

Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations

Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway

47.
The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed

30 seconds

2 minutes

1 minute

3 minutes

48.
The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by

ICAO

ECAC

ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned

Each contracting state

49.
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is

4000 feet (1200 m).

500 feet (150 m).

2000 feet (600 m).

1000 feet (300 m).

50.
When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case

the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes

it is a deviation from the track.

the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flightplan

of an emergency

Question Bank

Questions for INDIGO AIR LAW 1-513

Which statement is correct?

A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means

The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that

Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that : the missed approach track for one approach diverges by

In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of

Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than

For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is

The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code

Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?

The runway edge lights shall be

Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service

The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is

When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as possible and

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained byan aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?

Alert phase is defined as follows

A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should

""Code letter D"" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be

When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of

The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit

In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals

The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is

Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denounciation shall take effect

On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to

Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus

Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be

For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as

For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night

The ""estimated total time"" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time

According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has

The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is

The primary area of an instrument approach segment is

Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class

The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by

The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law

What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?

What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC?

According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least

Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of

The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""G"" above 10 000 feet MSL are

It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure

The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported

At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is

""Clearway"" is defined rectangular area established to

The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed

The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by

The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is

When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case