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Questions for INDIGO RADIO NAVIGATION

Answer the following questions

1. Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
2. The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of
3. In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR into an RNAV, the VOR
4. Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
5. The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the determination of ground features
6. Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation system?
7. Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of
8. Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an approximate
9. An aircraft on a heading of 280°(M) is on a bearing of 090°(M) from a VOR. The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with a 'TO' indication is
10. Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of
11. ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from
12. The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse
13. The frequency range of a VOR receiver is
14. An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately
15. In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation pattern
16. Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
17. The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because
18. An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of
19. Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?
20. Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of
21. The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to
22. The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the
23. In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
24. The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic
25. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is approximately
26. In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the differential technique (D-GPS)?
27. A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to
28. An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads : 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly'
29. An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is
30. The maximum range of primary radar depends on
31. The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to
32. In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at destination calculated by the Flight Management Computer (FMC) be correct?
33. The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is
34. In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are
35. Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
36. ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not exceed
37. In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by
38. At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?
39. Given:Aircraft heading 160°(M),Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR,Selected course on HSI is 250°.The HSI indications are deviation bar
40. Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) .......... ° each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) .......... NM from the threshold
41. A frequency of airborne weather radar is
42. One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/ GPS is to
43. Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?
44. Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C is correct?
45. Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?
46. Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
47. There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be
48. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
49. Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is:(pps = pulses per second)
50. In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a