Vayudoot Aviation

1. The aircraft DME receiver accepts replies to its own transmissions but rejects replies to other aircraft transmissions because

the pulse pairs from each aircraft have a unique amplitude modulation

the PRF of the interrogations is unique to each aircraft

the interrogation and reply frequencies are separated by 63 MHz

the interrogation frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft

2. Using a 5 dot CDI, how many dots would show for an aircraft on the edge of an airway at 100 nm from the VOR beacon?

3

5

2.5

1.5

3. What is the purpose of the GPS control segment?

to maintain the satellites in orbit

to monitor the satellites in orbit

to control the use of the satellites by unauthorised users

degrade the accuracy of satellites for unauthorised users

4. The accuracy of SSR mode C altitude as displayed to the air traffic controller is

+/-25 ft

+/-75 ft

+/-100 ft

+/-50 ft

5. The sensitive area of an ILS is the area aircraft may not enter when

ILS operations are in progress

the ILS is undergoing calibration

category II/III ILS operations are in progress

category 1 ILS operations are in progress

6. Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?

station interference, mountain effect, selective availability

static interference, height effect, lack of failure warning

coastal refraction, slant range, night effect

lack of failure warning, station interference, static interference

7. The colour recommended in JAR25 for the display of turbulence is

red

white or magenta

black

amber

8. The colour recommended in JAR25 for engaged modes is

magenta

cyan

green

white

9. Doppler navigation systems use …… to determine the aircraft groundspeed and drift

Phase comparison of signals from ground station

Frequency shift in signals reflected from the ground

DVOR

DME range measurement

10. The required accuracy of a precision RNAV (P-RNAV) system is

1.5 nm standard deviation or better

0.5 nm standard deviation or better

1 nm standard deviation or better

0.25 nm standard deviation or better

11. What is an ADC input to the FMC?

Heading

VOR/DME position

TAS

Groundspeed and drift

12. The operation of a 2D RNAV system may be seriously downgraded

because the computer cannot determine if the aircraft is within the DOC of the programmed facilities

if the selected navigation facility is in excess of about 70 nm

because the pilot cannot verify the correct frequency has been selected

because the computer cannot determine if the heading and altitude input are in error

13. The allocated frequency coverage of NDB's is

190 – 1750 kHz

250 – 450 kHz

108 – 117.95 MHz

200 – 500 kHz

14. With normal SSR mode C altitude coding the aircraft replies by sending back a train of up to 12 pulses contained between 2 framing pulses with

2048 codes in 4 blocks

4096 codes in 3 blocks

2048 codes in 3 blocks

4096 codes in 4 blocks

15. The positioning of a GNSS aerial on an aircraft is

in the fin

under the fuselage

on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity

on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver

16. An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are

285, TO

105, TO

105, FROM

285, FROM

17. Short range aerodrome radars will have …… wavelengths

millimetric

metric

centimetric

decimetric

18. The use of the AWR on the ground is

permitted provided special precautions are taken to safeguard personnel and equipment

permitted provided reduced power is reduced

only permitted to assist movement in low visibility conditions

not permitted

19. The number of satellites required to provide a 3D fix without RAIM is

6

3

5

4

20. Unauthorised' civilian users of NAVSTAR/GPS can access

the C/A and P codes

the C/A code

the P code

the P and Y codes

21. A NDB transmits a signal pattern which is

a 30 Hz polar diagram

omni-directional

bi-lobal pattern

a beam rotating at 30 Hz

22. Which of the following is independent of external inputs?

ADF

INS

VOR/DME

Direct reading magnetic compass

23. The inputs the pilot will make to the FMC during the pre-flight initialisation will include

Departure runway, planned route and ETD.

ETD, aircraft position, and planned route

Planned route, aircraft position, and departure runway

Navigation data base, aircraft position and departure aerodrome

24. The accuracy of ADF within the DOC by day is

+/-2°

+/-1°

+/-10°

+/-5°

25. What are the ground components of MLS?

separate azimuth and elevation antennae with middle and outer markers

separate azimuth and elevation antennae with DME

combined azimuth and elevation antennae with middle and outer markers

combined azimuth and elevation antennae with DME

26. Which input to the FMC is taken from sources external to the aircraft?

pressure altitude

magnetic heading from a direct reading compass

INS

VOR/DME

27.
Refer to appendix A diagram C. The wind velocity is

129°(M)/20kt

129°(M)/20 ms-1

129°(T)/20 ms-1

129°(T)/20 kt

28. Which is the most suitable radar for measuring short ranges?

millimetric pulse

centimetric pulse

continuous wave primary

continuous wave secondary

29. The optimum climb and descent speeds used byn the FMC are found

in the performance database

in the navigation database

in the operating manual and input to the FMC

n the checklist and input manually

30. When is the IRS position updated?

at significant waypoints only

at VOR beacons on route by the pilots

continuously by the FMC

on the ground only

31. In a conventional VOR the reference signal and the variable signal have a 30 Hz modulation. The variable signal modulation is produced by

adding 30 Hz to the transmitted signal

varying the amplitude up and down at +/-30 Hz

using Doppler techniques to produce a 30 Hz amplitude modulation

a 30 Hz rotation producing a 30 Hz modulation

32. Which SSR mode A code should be selected when entering European airspace from an area where no code has been allocated?

7000

0000

2000

7500

33. Which of the following external inputs is required by the FMC to determine W/V?

TAS

Mach no.

Track and groundspeed

magnetic heading

34. The main advantage of a slotted scanner is

removes the need for azimuth slaving

sidelobe suppression

reduces sidelobes and directs more energy into the main beam

can produce simultaneous map and weather information

35. With the AWR set at 100 nm range a large cloud appears at 50 nm. If the range is reduced to 50 nm

the image will increase in area and move to the top of the screen

the image will decrease in area and move to the top of the screen

the image will decrease in area and remain where it is

the image will increase in area and move to the bottom of the screen

36. Which of the following is a valid frequency (MHz) for a VOR?

109.90

118.35

112.20

107.75

37. What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF letdown?

None

VOR

VOR/DME

VHF radio

38.
Refer to diagram B of Appendix A. The aircraft is

right of the centreline and below the glidepath

left of the centreline and below the glidepath

right of the centreline and above the glidepath

left of the centreline and above the glidepath

39. The frequency band of the NAVSTAR/GPS L1 and L2 frequencies is

UHF

VHF

SHF

EHF

40. The JAR25 recommended colour for the present track line in the expanded modes is

magenta

green

cyan

white

41. The function of the receiver in the GNSS user segment is to

determine position and assess the accuracy of that position

interrogate the satellites to determine range

track the satellites to calculate range

track the satellites to calculate time

42. The ETA generated by the FMS will be most accurate

If the groundspeed and position are accurate.

when the forecast W/V equals the actual W/V and the FMS calculated Mach No. equals the actual Mach No.

If the groundspeed is correct and the take-off time has been entered.

If the forecast W/V at take-off is entered.

43. A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down to

the surface of the runway

less than 100 ft

less than 200 ft

less than 50 ft

44. The time required for a GNSS receiver to download the satellite almanac for the NAVSTAR/ GPS is

30 seconds

12 hours

15 minutes

12.5 minutes

45. What are the DME frequencies?

1030 – 1090 MHz

1030 & 1090 MHz

960 – 1215 MHz

960 &1215 MHz

46. In GNSS a fix is obtained by

measuring the time taken for signals from a minimum number of satellites to reach the aircraft.

measuring the phase angle of the signals from a number of satellites in known positions

measuring the time taken for the aircraft transmissions to travel to a number of satellites in known positions and return to the aircraft

measuring the pulse lengths of the sequential signals from a number of satellites in known positions

47. The distance measured between a satellite and a receiver is known as a pseudo-range because

satellite and receiver are continually moving in relation to each other

it is measured using pseudo-random codes

it includes receiver clock error

it is measured against idealised Keplerian orbits

48. Selective availability may be used to degrade the accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS position. This is achieved by

random dithering of the broadcast satellites clock time

random dithering of the broadcast satellites X, Y & Z co-ordinates

introducing an offset in the satellites clocks

introducing an offset in the broadcast satellites X, Y & Z co-ordinates

49. The JAR25 recommended colour for an active waypoint is

magenta

amber

green

cyan

50. The inclination of a satellite is

the angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane

the angle between the SV orbit and the equator

90° minus the angle between the SV orbit and the equator

90° minus the angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane

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