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Questions for R* B*LI FLIGHT PLANNING

Answer the following questions

1. If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your flight plan, you write
2. Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure routes the routes are given with
3. In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, concerning equipment, the letter to be used to indicate that the aircraft is equipped with a mode A4096 codes transponder with altitude reporting capcability is
4. To indicate to ATC that you are evacuating a critically injured on board, following will be added in box 18 of flight plane form
5. The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on a flight plan is
6. In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, corresponding to the estimated time of departure, the time indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to
7. When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given flight, one must take into account: 1. the wind 2. foreseeable airborne delays 3. other weather forecasts 4. any foreseeable conditions which may delay landing. The combination of correct statements is
8. When an ATS flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight, the flight plan should be amended or canceled in the event of the off-block time being delayed by
9. A flight plan can be submitted
10. On a flight plan you are required to indicate in the box marked "speed" the planned speed for the first part of the cruise or for the entire cruise. This speed is
11. On a given path, it is possible to choose between four flight levels (FL), each associated with a mandatory flight Mach Number (M). The flight conditions, static air temperature (SAT) and headwind component (HWC) are given below: FL 370; M=0.80; Ts=-60°C; HWC=-15kt FL330; M=0.78; Ts=-60°C; HWC = -5kt FL290; M=0.80; Ts=-55°C; HWC = -15kt FL270; M=0.76; Ts=-43°C; HWC=0kt The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is
12. When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly changing to VFR, the letters entered in Item8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be
13. You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following conditions: - dry operating mass: 2800 kg -trip fuel: 300kg -payload: 400kg -maximum take-off mass: 4200 kg - maximum landing mass: 3700kg
14. An aircraft, following a 215° true track, must fly over a 10600ft obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1500ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport close by, which is almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the temperature is ISA-15°C, the minimum flight level will be
15. Letter W in ITEM 10 of flight plan indicates
16. You have a flight plan IFR from Amsterdam to London. In the flight plan it is noted that you will deviate from the ATS route passing the FIR boundary Amsterdam/London. The airway clearance reads: Cleared to London via flight planned route. Which of the following statements is correct?
17. The fuel burn off is 200kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0.8. If the relative density is 0.75, the fuel burn will be
18. A flight plan is required to be filed by
19. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75? Departure aerodrome elevation = 1500ft QNH = 1023 hPa. Temperatue = ISA. 1 hPa = 30ft
20. The measured course 042° T. The variation in the area is 6°W and the wind is calm. The deviation is 4° W. In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of
21. A twin-jet aero plane carries out the X-Y flight. When it reaches point K (35°N, 048°W) a non-mechanical event makes the Captain consider rerouting to one of the three following fields. The flight conditions are: - from K to A (distance 847NM, headwind component =18kt) -from K to B (distance 1112NM, tailwind component = 120kt) - from K to C (distance 883NM, wind component = 0) With an aero plane true airspeed of 460 kt, the field selected will be that more rapidly reached
22. In the ATS flight plan item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a serviceable transponder-mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is
23. An airfield elevation of 900 ft and a QNH of 1019 hPa, determine the aerodrome pressure altitude
24. You are flying a constant heading of 252°. Variation is 22°E, deviation is 3°W and your INS is showing a drift of 9° right. The true track is?
25. The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and the time 30 minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30kt headwind?
26. In order to Take-Off an aircraft requires a Runway Headwind Component of at least 15 Kts. The maximum permitted Cross Wind Component is 30 Kts. The Runway in use is 09 and the Wind Direction is 130°. The minimum and maximum wind speeds that will allow take-off are
27. At an airfield where the Relative Humidity is high
28. True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30kt, True air speed (TAS) 420kt find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)
29. In the ATS flight plan item 19, emergency and survival equipment carried on the flight should be indicated by
30. Item 9 of the ATS flight plan includes "NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT". In this case "NUMBER" means